Which cranial nerve is affected by trigeminal neuralgia?
V
2
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what is used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the dermatome?
Mineral Oil
3
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which of the following is an example o fproper sterile technique when performing the prep for a split thickness skin graft
donor site first
4
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what is the recommneded range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult patient when using an insufflator during a laparoscopic procedure
12-15mm Hg m
5
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Which of these terms refers to the inability to direct both eyes at the same object
strabismus
6
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what procedure is performed to correct chronic cerebral ischemia
endarterectomy
7
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according to the rule of nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back of the trunk
18%
8
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which term refers to an abnormal increase in the number of cells
hyperplasia
9
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a second intention wound heals by
granulation
10
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intraoperative ventricular arrhythmias are treated with
lidocaine
11
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how many millimeters equal two ounces
60
12
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covering a sterile backtable for later use is
not permissible under any circumstances
13
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in which position would a patient be placed to counteract hypovelemia
trandelenburg
14
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which of the following types of suture creatte the least tissue trauma and drag
swaged and monofilament
15
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which organization has legal oversigth for the safety of healthcare providers in the work place
OSHA
16
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which level of maslows’s hiearchy of needs is most applicable to the surgical patient
physiological and survival
17
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which of the following would be incorrect technique when removing the sterile gown and gloves
gloves removed first
18
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what type of procedure might require a laparoscopy combination drape
abdominoperineal resection
19
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cell destruction by steam sterilization occurs by
coagulation of protein
20
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which technique is not acceptable when draping
unfold drape before bringing up to the OR table
21
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a patien’ts fingernail polish is removed to
allow for use of pulse oximeter
22
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what is the purpose of maintaining the air exchange rate at 15-20 times per hour in the OR
reduce microbial count
23
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how many mL of water is necessary to inflate a 5ml balloon on the foley indwelling catheter
10
24
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if an opthalmologist orders trimming of eyelashes, how is it safely performed
fine scissors coated with water soluble gel
25
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what is the correct technique for performing the surgical skin prep
incision site to periphery using circular motion
26
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the laboratory test that determines the ratio of erythrocytes to whole blood is
hematocrit
27
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what is the proper proceudre to follow when a pack of psonges contains an incorrect number after the patient has entered the OR
hand off the sterile field and isolate
28
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which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution
calculi
29
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where should the surgical technologist begin when performing closing counts
operative field
30
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which of the following catheter tips is used in a patient with a urethral stricture
coude
31
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which type of procedure would require a stent dressing
neck
32
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which of the following is used in order to ensure preservation of the facial nerve during a partoidectomy
nerve stimulator
33
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which of the following hemostatic agents is contraindicated for use in th epresence of infection
absorbable collagen
34
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during closure of a nephrectomy in the lateral posiiton, the oR table is straightened to facillitate
tissue approximation
35
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which of the following must be tested prior to the use of a fiberoptic bronchopscope
light source
36
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jexcision of a constricted segment of the aorta with reanastomosis is performed to correct
coarctation of the aorta
37
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for which of the following diagnoses would a patient undergo ednoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
choledocholithiasis
38
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the high ligation of the gonadal veins of the testes performed to reduce venous plexus congestion is a
varicocelectomy
39
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trauma to whcih two of the following cranial nerves would result in the loss of smell and vision
I and II
40
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which of the following is performed for suspected ectopic pregnancy
culdocentesis
41
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which of the following is a procedure for treatment of glaucoma
iridectomy
42
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what procedure si performed to immobilize the jaw following a mandibular fracture
arch bar application
43
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which of the following total arthroplasty procedures would require the postoperative use of an abduction splint
hip
44
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untreated cute otitis media result in
mastoiditis
45
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which of the following is used intraoperatively to assess vascular patency
doppler ultrasound
46
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which of the following is the body’s primary source of energy
carbohydrates
47
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what is compressed during rapid sequence induction and intubation
cricoid cartilage
48
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what term refers to the spred of cancerous cells to other parts of the body
metastasis
49
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the shared passageway for food and air is the
pharynx
50
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the structure that lies along the posterior border of the testis is the
epididymis
51
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the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the
bicuspic
52
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which characteristic describes an amphiarthrosis
slightly movable
53
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what is the most abduant ion in the body
calcium
54
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which of the following is he ethod of bacterial survival when environmenta conitions are not conducive to growht and viability
spore formation
55
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what organ detects changes int eh level of insulin and releases chemials to regulate the level of blood glucose
pancreas
56
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what does the term strike through mean
soaking of mosture from unsterile to sterile layers
57
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which of the following monitoring devices woul dbe used within a vessel
swan ganz
58
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lwhen adding 30 mL of 0.5% marcaine, what strength does the drug become
0\.25%
59
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what action should be taken if the patient has withdrawn the surgical informed consent prior to surgery
do not transport patient; inform surgeon
60
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confining and containing instruments with bioburden prevents which of teh following
cross contamination
61
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the unsterile size of the perimeter of the sterile wrap is
1 inch
62
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a substance that inhibits the growth and reproduction of microbes on living tissue is a
antiseptic
63
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what action should be taken by the transporter if a discrepancy occurs in the identification of a patient in the nursing unit
do not transport, inform unit supervisor and OR personnel
64
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a patient may be asked to shower at home with an antimicrobial soap before coming to the hospital for surgery to
achieve a culative antimicrobial effect
65
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what are the sequential steps performed prior to entrance into the sterile field
scrub, gown, glove
66
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which area is prepped last when performing the skinprep for a bartholin’s cystectomy
anus
67
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the sterile surgical technologist should drape a table from
front to back
68
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whcih of the following can be injured if the arm is palced on teh arm board greater than 90 degrees
brachial plexus
69
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what is the purpose of the third lumen in a three way indwelling foley catheter
instill irrigation fluids
70
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which of the following enlarges and illuminates the surgical field during cataract procedures
operating microscope
71
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small radiopaque surgical patties used during cranial procedures are
cottonoids
72
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which of the following hemostatic agents must be applied dry and only handled with dry gloves and instruments
avitene
73
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which surgical specialty would utilize a phacoemulsification machine
opthalmology
74
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which of the following lasers would be contraindicated for use in the posterior chamber of the eye
carbon dioxide
75
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in which structure of the heart are the leads for a permaent pacemaker placed
Right ventricle
76
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for which of the following diagnoses would a patient require pancreaticojejunostomy
alcoholic pancreatitis
77
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in which procedure would a bookwalter retractor be used
retropubic prostatectomy
78
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which cranial nerve is severed as a last resort treatement of meniere’s disease
VIII (vestibulocholear nerve)
79
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brachytherapy is performed to treat
cervical cancer
80
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which procedure is performed to improve the vision of patients with myopia
radial keratomy
81
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the facial fracture that involves the complete separation of teh maxilla from the cranial base is a
leFort I
82
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where is the incision for a caldwell-luc procedue made
canine fossa
83
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the devise used for real time intraopertaive assessment of blood flow is a
doppler
84
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the needle holder shown below would be used during a
craniotomy
85
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a chemical reaction that provides energy by the breakdown of food is
catabolism
86
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which structure of the ear is responsible for equillibrium
semicircular canals
87
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the first step of urine production when fluids and dissolved substances are forced through a memebrane by pressure is called
glomerular filtration
88
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the adipose tissue overlying the symphysis is the
mons pubis
89
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the cranial nerve that regulates secretion of gastric juice is the
X (vagus nerve)
90
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phagocytosis by the white blood cells is an example of which line of defense
second
91
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when opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the first corner
away from self
92
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which of the following is the least inert of the synthetic meshes
polyester fiber
93
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what radiopaque contrast medium is used intraopertaively when the patient is allergic to iodine
renografin
94
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which of the following legal terms would apply to a case when a nonenglish speaking patient signs a surgical informed consent in english, but does not fully understand it
assault and batter
95
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which of the following psychosocial factors is important for the surgical tema to address for pediatric patients
separation anxiety
96
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what is the surgical technologists role during the transfer of the patietn from the OR bed to the stretcher
maintain sterilitiy and integrity of backtable
97
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when breaking down the sterile field, the surgical technolgoist should place the grossly contaminated instruments in which of the following
basin with sterile water
98
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how many minutes are unwrapped instruments with no lumens sterilized at 270 degrees F
3
99
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what is the recommended method of hair removal from the operative site
clippers with disposable heads
100
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which of the following must be in the chart prior to the patient being taken to the OR per the joint commission