Radiology final

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101 Terms

1
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What will air look like on an x-ray?

Black

2
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What will subcutaneous fat look like on an x-ray?

Dark grey

3
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What will soft tissue look like on an x-ray?

Light grey

4
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What will bone look like on an x-ray?

Off white

5
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What will metal look like on an x-ray?

Bright white

6
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In a PA chest x-ray where is the cassette positioned?

On the chest

7
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In an AP chest x-ray where is the cassette positioned?

On the back

8
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What is the disadvantage of an AP chest x-ray?

Makes it look larger, especially the heart (cardiomegaly) & also can’t get a lateral

9
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<p>This infiltrate over the the hemi-diaphragm indicates what?</p>

This infiltrate over the the hemi-diaphragm indicates what?

Right lower lobe pneumonia

10
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When would you ask a patient to exhale on a chest x-ray?

  1. Pneumothorax - air between lung wall & parenchyma

  2. Atelectasis - collapsed lung

  3. Air trapping

11
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In pneumonia, what would you expect to see on the chest x-ray?

Trachea deviated away from itself & the affected lung

<p>Trachea deviated away from itself &amp; the affected lung</p>
12
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In atelectasis, what would you expect to see on the chest x-ray?

Trachea deviated toward/into the affected lung

<p>Trachea deviated toward/into the affected lung</p>
13
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In tension pneumothorax (filled with air), what would you expect to see on the chest x-ray?

Trachea deviates away from affected lung

<p>Trachea deviates away from affected lung </p>
14
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When looking at the caridac silhouette what is considered normal?

Width of the heart being half the width of the thoracic cage

15
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<p>What is skiing down Mt. APAV?</p>

What is skiing down Mt. APAV?

  1. Aorta

  2. Pulmonary artery (trunk)

  3. Left atrium

  4. Left ventricle

16
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<p>If the delineation is disrupted on the right what is the expected diagnosis?</p>

If the delineation is disrupted on the right what is the expected diagnosis?

Right middle lobe pneumonia

17
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<p>If the delineation is disrupted on the left what is the expected diagnosis?</p>

If the delineation is disrupted on the left what is the expected diagnosis?

Lingula pneumonia

18
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<p>When would the Costophrenic angle go from sharp to blunted?</p>

When would the Costophrenic angle go from sharp to blunted?

In a right/left lower lobe pneumonia (filled with fluid)

19
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<p>What do the lucencies in the diaphragm represent?</p>

What do the lucencies in the diaphragm represent?

Free air meaning there’s a perforation somewhere

20
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<p>What is the diagnosis based off of this chest x-ray?</p>

What is the diagnosis based off of this chest x-ray?

Atelectasis

21
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<p>What is the diagnosis based off of this chest x-ray?</p>

What is the diagnosis based off of this chest x-ray?

Complete atelectasis of the right side

22
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<p>What is the diagnosis based off of this chest x-ray?</p>

What is the diagnosis based off of this chest x-ray?

Left lower lobe pneumonia

23
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<p>42 year old comes in with acute SOB. What is the diagnosis based off of this chest x-ray?</p>

42 year old comes in with acute SOB. What is the diagnosis based off of this chest x-ray?

Tension pneumothorax

24
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<p>What does this “C” sign indicate?</p>

What does this “C” sign indicate?

Talocalcaneal coalitions (TCC)

25
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Other than the “C” sign, what is seen radiographically on TCCs?

Talar beaking

26
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<p>What does this “anteater” sign indicate?</p>

What does this “anteater” sign indicate?

Calcaneonavicular coalitions (CNC)

27
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<p>What is the image &amp; view?</p>

What is the image & view?

Sagittal CT of the foot

28
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<p>What is the image &amp; view?</p>

What is the image & view?

Coronal CT of the hind foot

29
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<p>What is the image &amp; view?</p>

What is the image & view?

T1 & T2 Sagittal MRI of the ankle

30
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<p>What is this image &amp; view?</p>

What is this image & view?

Coronal CT of a TC coalition

31
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What is Stage 1 of Paget’s disease?

Starts in subchondral & spreads to whole long bone. Will also see “blades of grass” sign

32
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What is Stage 2 of Paget’s disease?

Osteolysis & osteonecrosis - diaphysis is lucent while rest of bone is sclerotic

33
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What is Stage 3 of Paget’s disease?

All sclerotic & thickening

34
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What is Stage 4 of Paget’s disease?

Malignant degeneration

35
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<p>What is this?</p>

What is this?

Blades of grass in stage 1 of Paget’s disease

36
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<p>What is this?</p>

What is this?

Banana/chalk transverse fracture - insufficiency fractures bc bone is weak seen in Pagets

37
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What are clinical signs of Hyperparathyroidism?

  • HTN

  • Weakness

  • Bone pain

  • Anxiety/confusion

  • Polyuria/nocturia

38
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<p>What are radiographic signs of Hyperparathyroidism?</p>

What are radiographic signs of Hyperparathyroidism?

  • Subperiosteal resorption

  • Brown’s tumors (lucent oval lesions)

  • Soft tissue calcification

39
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<p>What is this a sign of?</p>

What is this a sign of?

Sub-periosteal bone resorption distal tufts in Hyperparathyroidism

40
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<p>What are these signs of?</p>

What are these signs of?

Rheumatoid arthritis

41
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What is usually affected 1st in RA?

5th MTPJ

42
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What is usually spared in RA?

IPJs except for the Hallux

43
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<p>Where do the erosions in RA usually occur?</p>

Where do the erosions in RA usually occur?

  • MTPJs & IPJ of hallux

  • Medial aspects of met heads & the head of the proximal phalanx of hallux

44
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What comes first in Psoriatic arthritis?

Skin changes (then articular changes)

45
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What clinical signs would be seen in Psoriatic arthritis?

  • Nail changes - subungual keratosis, lateral onycholysis, thickening, & irregularly

  • Affects hands & feet

46
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What are radiographic signs seen in Psoriatic arthritis?

  • No osteoporosis

  • DIPJ involvement

  • Widening/narrowing of joint space

  • Distal phalangeal tuft erosion

  • Pencil-in-cup deformity

47
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What are clinical signs of Gout?

  • 1st MTPJ most common

  • Soft tissue swelling

  • Tophi

  • Cortical erosions w/ overhanging margins (Martel sign

48
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<p>What does this x-ray indicate?</p>

What does this x-ray indicate?

Martel sign in Gout

49
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What is Ankylosing spondylitis?

Chronic inflamm disorder of unknown origin that’s a widespread systemic disorder affecting the MTPJ, Lis Franc’s joint, & IPJ. Also causes subluxations & tarsal tunnel syndrome

50
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What are radiographic signs seen in Ankylosing spondylitis?

  • Bilateral symmetrical sacroilitis

  • Bamboo spine

  • Oligoarticular asymmetrical joint changes in foot

  • Calcaneal changes (retrocalcaneal bursitis leading to erosion + enthesophytes)

51
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Where are Angiosarcomas mainly found?

Bone - tibia

52
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<p>What does this x-ray indicate?</p>

What does this x-ray indicate?

Lysis of the bone in Angiosarcoma

53
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<p>What would be seen on a CT for angiosarcomas?</p>

What would be seen on a CT for angiosarcomas?

  • Similar to muscle

  • Bright contrast

  • Large feeding vessels

54
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<p>What would be seen on a MRI for angiosarcomas?</p>

What would be seen on a MRI for angiosarcomas?

  • Soft tissue mass

  • Hyperintense on T2

  • Prominent flow voids

55
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What is the T score of the Dexa scan?

Based on normal mineralized bone of a 30 year old female

56
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What is the Z score of the Dexa scan?

Based on normal density of the age of patient as compared to same age & gender normal value

57
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What does a T score of -1 - -2.5 SD indicate?

Osteopenia

58
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What does a T score at or below -2.5 SD indicate?

Osteoporosis

59
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What does a Z score at or below -2.5 SD indicate?

It’s lower than it should be for age & gender

60
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What are the 3 categories of Juvenile RA?

  • Pauciarticular

  • Polyarticular

  • Systemic-onset

61
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What is Type I Pauciarticular Juvenile RA?

Involvement of 4 or less joints in young females

62
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What is Type II Pauciarticular Juvenile RA?

Involvement of 4 or less joints in older boys, associated with spondyloarthropathies

63
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What is Polyarticular Juvenile RA?

Involvement of 5 or more joints either seronegative or seropositive

64
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What is Systemic-onset Juvenile RA?

Fever, skin rash, lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, &/or pericarditis

65
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What are characteristics of a periosteal reaction in benign tumors?

Slow growing with time to remodel

  • Solid

  • Uniform

  • Wavy

66
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What are characteristics of a periosteal reaction in malignant tumors?

Quick growing with no time to remodel

  • Multilayer or lamellated

  • Perpendicular to long axis of bone

  • Spiculated or interrupted

67
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What type of Periosteal interaction is Codman’s triangle?

Periosteum lifts away from the bone, seen in osteogenic sarcomas &/or osteomyelitis

<p>Periosteum lifts away from the bone, seen in osteogenic sarcomas &amp;/or osteomyelitis </p>
68
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What type of Periosteal interaction is “Hair on end?”

Perpendicular rays of periosteal new bone, seen in osteogenic sarcomas &/or ewings sarcomas

<p>Perpendicular rays of periosteal new bone, seen in osteogenic sarcomas &amp;/or ewings sarcomas</p>
69
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What type of Periosteal interaction is “Sun burst?”

Filiform radiating pattern seen in osteogenic sarcoma

<p>Filiform radiating pattern seen in osteogenic sarcoma</p>
70
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What type of Periosteal interaction is “Onion skin?”

Multiple layers of concentric layers of periosteal new bone formation seen in ewings sarcoma

<p>Multiple layers of concentric layers of periosteal new bone formation seen in ewings sarcoma</p>
71
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What type of Periosteal interaction is “Buttressing?”

Formation of many layers of thick periosteum seen in Paget’s disease

<p>Formation of many layers of thick periosteum seen in Paget’s disease</p>
72
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What is concerning for malignancy?

Wide zone of transition (border)

73
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What are aggressive, destructive, & have a wide zone of transition but are not malignant tumors?

  • Infection

  • Eosinophilic granuloma

74
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What does a lucent - narrow zone of transition indicate?

  • Well-defined

  • Good sign

75
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What does a lucent - wide zone of transition indicate?

  • Ill-defined

  • Concerning

76
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What type of Zone of transition do sclerotic lesions have?

Wide

77
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What are the most common tumors over 40?

MM (primary)

  • Multiple myeloma

  • Metastatic

78
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What are the over-under/transitional tumors?

GE

  • Giant cell

  • Endochondroma

79
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Which tumors under 30 are malignant?

  • Osteosarcoma

  • Ewing sarcoma

80
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What are the other significant over 30 tumors?

Old Folk Population in the Country

  • Osteoma

  • Fibrosarcoma

  • Pareosteal sarcoma

  • Chondrosarcoma

81
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What will not produce a Periosteal reaction unless the bone fractures from them?

  • Simple bone cyst

  • Non-osseous fibroma

  • Enchondroma

  • Fibrous dysplasia

82
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What is the most common area for bone tumors & what kind occur there?

Knee - all, especially osteosarcoma, ewings

83
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What is the most common area for non-osseous fibromas, fibrous dysplasia, & osteoid osteomas?

Tibial shaft

84
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What is the most common area for simple bone cyst, ewing sarcoma, osteoblastoma, & chondroblastomas?

Calcaneus

85
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What is the most common area for enchondroma (most occurrence), chondromyxoid fibrous, & osteoid osteomas?

Phalanges

86
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Where in the bone are Chondroblastomas & giant cell tumors (giant joint) found?

Epiphysis

87
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Where in the bone are osteosarcomas, chondrosarcomas, & _ fibromas found?

Metaphysis

88
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Where are CEMENTs found?

  • C - bone cysts

  • E - enchondroma/ewing

  • M - metastatic

  • E - eosinophilic granuloma

  • N - non-ossifying fibroma

  • T - tuberculosis

89
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Where do tumors primarily metasticize?

PBKTL/Lead Kettle

  • P - prostate

  • B - breast

  • K - kidney

  • T - thyroid

  • L - lung

90
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What is multiple lesions (enchondromatosis)?

Ollier’s disease

91
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What is multiple lesions + hemangiomatosis (enchondromas)?

Mafucci’s disease

92
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What is associated with Albright’s disease as well as Von recklinghausen’s disease?

Fibrous dysplasia

93
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What is the most common benign bone tumor in children?

Osteochondroma

94
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Where would you see a fallen fragment or fallen leaf sign?

Solitary bone cysts (simple or unicameral)

95
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Where are Chondroblastomas of the foot most commonly found?

Subchondral areas of the talus, calcaneus, & calcaneal apophysis

96
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What is the most common soft tissue tumor in children?

Rhabdomyosarcoma

97
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What are the most common Podiatry masses?

  • Ganglion cysts

  • Synovial cysts

  • Lipomas

98
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What is the preferred imaging for soft tissue masses?

MRI with T1 & T2 STIR

99
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What is the best combination for anterior/posterior soft tissue lesions?

Sagittal & axial

100
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What is the best combination for medial/lateral soft tissue lesions?

Coronal & axial