HSS 2305- Unit 2

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Health

192 Terms

1
What are the two stages of prenatal development?
embryonic period and fetal period
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2
What major events occur during the embryonic period?
organs form, fertilization, blastocyst implantation
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3
What major events occur during the fetal period?
organs grow in size and complexity
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4
Where does fertilization occur?
in the fallopian tube
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5
What happens during fertilization?
egg and sperm nuclei combine to form a zygote
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6
What is a zona pellucida?
the protective coat on a zygote
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7
What is cleavage?
very rapid cell division
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8
What is a morula?
solid cluster of cells that develop after cleavage
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9
What structure develops after the morula continues to divide and undergo differentiation and cavitation?
a blastocyst
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10
What are the two layers of a blastocyst?
inner cell mass, trophoblast
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11
What does the inner cell mass develop into?
the embryo
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12
What does the trophoblast develop into?
the placenta
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13
What is the role of the trophoblast?
helps the embryo implant into the uterine lining
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14
What happens during implantation?
blastocyst adheres to inner wall of the uterus
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15
What is an ectopic pregnancy?
pregnancy where the embryo implants outside the uterus
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16
What does the inner cell mass transform into during week 2?
a bilaminar pancake shaped embryonic disc
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17
What are the two layers of the bilaminar embryonic disc?
hypoblast, epiblast
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18
What is week 1 of the emrbyonic period?
embryonic development
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19
What is week 2 of the embryonic period?
embyronic disc
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20
What is week 3 of the emrbyonic period?
gastrulation
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21
What is gastrulation?
rearranging of the cells into three germ layers
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22
What is a germ layer?
a layer of cells that will go on to form one of our organizational tubes
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23
What are the 3 germ layers?
endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm
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24
What does the endoderm become?
the epithelial lining of the GI tract, liver, lungs and pancreas
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25
What does the mesoderm become?
skeleton, muscles, heart, blood vessels, kidneys
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26
What does the ectoderm become?
CNS, PNS, epidermis, hair and nails
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27
What is neurulation?
first stage in the development of the nervous system
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28
What happens during neurulation?
ectodermal cells elongate to form a neural plate then fold over and meet at the midline to form a neural tube
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29
What does the cranial part of the neural tube become?
the brain
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30
What causes neural tube defects?
maternal folic acid deficiency
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31
What are neural tube defects (NTDs)?
opening in the spinal cord or brain that does not close completely
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32
T/F NTDs are one of the most common birth defects
true
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33
What are the two main types of NTD?
anencephaly, spinal bifida
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34
What is anencephaly?
NTD that occurs when the head end of the neural tube fails to close
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35
What are major signs of anencephaly?
absent skull and cerebellum, blind deaf and unconscious, still born
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36
What is spina bifida?
unfused and open spinal cord
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37
What is folic acid?
a b vitamin that helps a womans body produce healthy red blood cells
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38
What causes cleft lip?
failure of the medial nasal prominence and maxillary prominence to fuse
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39
Why can cleft palate lead to death?
the baby is unable to suck on the nipple and eat
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40
What is zika virus associated with?
microcephaly
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41
What does alcohol consumption increase the risk of?
miscarriages, stillbirth, prematurity, FASD
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42
T/F trisomy 21 increases the risk of heart and birth defects
true
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43
What does the variable gene activity hypothesis say?
activating and inactivating genes at different times in different cells causes differentiation
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44
T/F segmentation for drosophilias are determined early in development
true
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45
T/F drosophilia adult structures form from each segment of the embryo
true
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46
What is neoplasia?
process of abnormal cell growth
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47
What is a tumor or neoplasm?
abnormal growth of cells
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48
T/F neoplasia is always cancer
false
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49
What is a benign tumour?
localized but potentially non harmful tumour that does not spread to other tissue
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50
What is a malignant tumor?
a tumor that invades surrounding tissue and spreads to other tissue
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51
What is cancer?
term that encompasses 200+ diseases that occur at different ages with different rates of growth, detection evasiveness and capacities to spread
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52
T/F all cancer is genetic and results from damaged DNA or RNA
true
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53
What are germ line mutations?
mutations caused by mutations of the egg or sperm
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54
What are drivers?
cancer causing mutations in tumour suppressing genes
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55
What are passengers?
mutations that only accompany drivers and have no known cancer causing impact
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56
What are induced mutations?
mutations caused by exposure to chemicals, viruses and UV radiation
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57
What is angiogenesis?
vascularization of the tumor
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58
What suffix do benign neoplasms end in?
oma
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59
What suffix does malignant tissue originating from epithelial tissue end in?
carcinoma
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60
What suffix does malignant tissue originating from parenchymal tissue end in?
sarcoma
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61
What are malignant tissue originating from hematopoietic or lymphoid tissue called?
leukemias or lymphomas
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62
T/F cancer cells have shorter cell cycles
false
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63
T/F cancer cells move through the cell cycle many more
times than normal cells without performing normal functions of that tissue
true
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64
In cancer cells what allows an accumulation of genetic errors?
error-prone DNA repair missed in check points
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65
What are cyclin dependent kinases?
enzymes that act like a gas pedal that improve passage through cell phases
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66
What do cyclins do?
bind and activate the cyclin dependent kinases
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67
What is differentiation?
maturation of a normal cell
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68
What is the most immature type of cell?
blast cell
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69
T/F cancer cells lose their differentiation and appear very similar to blast cells
true
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70
What does a low differentiation grading number for cancer cells mean?
well differentiated and specialized cancer cells
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71
What does a high differentiation grading number mean?
poorly differentiated and poorly specialized cancer cells
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72
What does GX describe?
tissue that cannot be assessed
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73
What is the role of tumor suppressor genes?
code for proteins that repress the cell cycle and promote apoptosis
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74
What is the role of proto-oncogenes?
code for proteins that stimulate the cell cycle and promote cell growth
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75
What is an oncogene?
a gene that has the potential to cause cancer
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76
Most cancers are caused by mutations to which two basic classes of genes
proto-oncogenes, tumour suppressor genes
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77
What type of chromosomal mutation is the hallmark of all leukemias and lymphomas?
translocation
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78
What are mutator genes?
DNA repair genes that prevent genetic instability
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79
Chromosomal deletions are associated most often with what type of tumors?
solid tumors
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80
What is gene amplification?
increase in the number of gene copies
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81
What are growth factors?
proteins that control cell growth, differentiation and survival
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82
What are membrane associated G proteins?
proteins that act as on/off switches for cell surface growth factor receptors
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83
What is loss of heterozygosity?
absence of a tumour suppressor gene
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84
T/F when a cancer cell acquires its first mutation in a gene it becomes heterozygous for that particular gene
true
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85
What are 5 ways loss of heterozygosity can occur?
loss of chromosome, partial deletion, unbalanced translocation, loss and reduplication, miotic recombination
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86
What are the two models of cancer evolution?
stochastic model, cancer stem cell model
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87
What is the stochastic model?
model where each cancer cell has the ability to proliferate and form new tumours from same tissue of origin
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88
What is the cancer stem cell model?
most cells have limited ability to proliferate but stem cells are responsible for forming sites for growth of new tumours
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89
Why are cancer stem cells insensitive to chemotherapy and radiation?
they do not rapidly divide
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90
What is vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)?
growth of new vessels
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91
What does VEGF cause?
angiogenesis increases causig growth and spread of malignancy
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92
What does the time spent in the cell cycle depend on?
pH of the cell, amount of oxygen, glucose and nutrients, existing space to growth
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93
What is the three step theory?
initiation, promotion, progression
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94
What is the initiation step?
cancer causing agent damages DNA, DNA repair is unsuccessful, permanent mutation of the cell
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95
What is the promotion step?
carcinogen (promoter) introduced, apoptosis inhibited, tumour expansion
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96
When does the progression step occur?
if irreversible damage to DNA occurs in promotion
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97
What is the progression step?
accumulation of mutations
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98
What type of tumour forms during the promotion step?
benign
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99
What type of tumour forms during the progression step?
malignant
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100
What are homeotic genes?
cluster of genes that determine which adult structures will be formed by each body segment
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