BIO02 - MODULE 2 TEST

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1
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Which of the following is/are not a “branch” of comparative physiology?
Clinical physiology & Veterinarian physiology.
2
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Which of the following is not a “general theme” in comparative physiology?
Speciation (i.e., the formation of new species).
3
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A physiological change caused by moderate to long-term exposure to a given environmental condition either naturally or in a laboratory setting is which of the following?
an acclimatisation-induced change.
4
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Haemoglobin that binds oxygen with greater affinity in people and animals who were born and raised
for generations at high-altitude is an example of which type of change?
An adaptive change
5
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The release of glucagon into the blood in response to high blood sugar is an example of which type of response(s)?
An acute response & a feedback response
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An example of glucose mobilization from the liver into the blood prior to starting exercise is an example of which type of response?
A feedforward respons
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A human would be classified as which of the following?
a. Temperature conformer.
b. Temperature regulator.
c. Osmotic conformer.
d. Osmotic regulator.
Temperature regulator & Osmotic regulator
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The transition of an amphibian from the water-breathing tadpole phase to the air-breathing adult
phase is an example of how many of the following?
An adaptive change.
An acclimatisation-induced change.
A developmental change.
An acute change.
A circadian rhythm.
1 (A developmental change)
9
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Which of the following are not examples of a circadian rhythm?
a. A nightly reduction in body temperature.
b. A nightly reduction in blood pressure.
c. Fluctuations in blood pressure with exercise.
d. An increase in blood adrenaline levels with stress.
e. All of the above are examples of circadian rhythms.
C & D (Fluctuations in blood pressure with exercise & An increase in blood adrenaline levels with stress.)
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Which of the following is the primary environmental factor that defines an aquatic environment versus a terrestrial environment?
Differences in oxygen levels
11
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Which of the following environment(s) have elevated levels of carbon dioxide?
Underground burrows & Ponds and lakes
12
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Which of the following regarding freshwater fish is correct?
Freshwater fish gain water and lose ions
13
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Which of the following regarding seawater (teleost) fish is correct?
Seawater fish lose water and gain ions.
14
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Which organ in fish takes on many of the functions that are performed in humans/mammals by the kidney?
The gills
15
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Which type of shark would be best suited to living in brackish water?
A bullshark
16
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How many of the following characteristics of the deep-sea hydrothermal vents are incorrect?
They are found in the deep places of the oceans several hundred meters below the water surface.
They expel or vent very hot fluids that can be upward of 350 C.
The bulk ambient seawater further away from the hydrothermal vents is very cold; approximately 2 C.
The mixed vent/ambient water is a more moderate temperature of approximately 50 C.
The water is very hypoxic (low levels of dissolved oxygen). It is practically anoxic (devoid of oxygen).
There are very high pressures (several hundred atmospheres).
There are toxic chemicals such as hydrogen sulphide in the waters around the vents.
There is no photosynthesis due to the absence of carbon dioxide.
2 (They are found in the deep places of the oceans several hundred meters below the water surface & There is no photosynthesis due to the absence of carbon dioxide)
17
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What is/are the outcome(s) of a battle between a fully-grown great white shark and a fully-grown killer whale?
The killer whale wins every time; it is no contest.
18
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Riftia pachyptila, the giant gutless tube worm that lives in the deep-sea hydrothermal vents is best classified as which of the following?
An animal.
19
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What are the two main divisions of the nervous system?
a. Central nervous system.
b. Autonomic nervous system.
c. Afferent nervous system.
d. Sympathetic nervous system.
e. Efferent nervous system.
f. Somatic nervous system.
g. Peripheral nervous system.
h. Parasympathetic nervous system.
C & G (Central nervous system & Peripheral nervous system)
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What are the two main divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
a. Somatic nervous system.
b. Central nervous system.
c. Sympathetic nervous system.
d. Afferent nervous system.
e. Autonomic nervous system.
f. Parasympathetic nervous system.
g. Efferent nervous system.
D & G (Afferent nervous system & Efferent nervous system)
21
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What are the two main divisions of the efferent nervous system?
a. Somatic nervous system.
b. Central nervous system.
c. Peripheral nervous system.
d. Parasympathetic nervous system.
e. Afferent nervous system.
f. Autonomic nervous system.
g. Sympathetic nervous system.
A & F (Somatic nervous system & Autonomic nervous system)
22
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What are the two main divisions of the autonomic nervous system?
a. Central nervous system.
b. Somatic nervous system.
c. Peripheral nervous system.
d. Sympathetic nervous system.
e. Afferent nervous system.
f. Parasympathetic nervous system.
g. Efferent nervous system.
D & G (Sympathetic nervous system & Efferent nervous system)
23
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What does the somatic branch of the efferent nervous system innervate?
Skeletal muscle
24
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What do the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the autonomic nervous system innervate?
a. Glands.
b. Skeletal muscle.
c. Smooth muscle.
d. Various other organs.
A, C, & D (Glands, Smooth muscle, & Various other organs)
25
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Sensory receptors can be considered to be part of which branch of the nervous system?
Afferent nervous system
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Which of the following steps in the nervous reflex arc involve interneurons?
Integration
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Which of the following steps in the nervous reflex arc involve motor neurons?
Response
28
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Which of the following steps in the nervous reflex arc involve is not part of the afferent or efferent nervous systems?
Integration
29
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Which of the following is not a sensory receptor?
An acetylcholine receptor.
30
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of a generic sensory receptors?
a. A receptor protein on the plasma membrane.
b. A signal transduction pathway.
c. Ion channel opening or closing.
d. Second messenger production.
e. A nerve signal sent to the brain or spinal cord.
f. All of the above are characteristics of a generic sensory receptor.
F (All of the above)
31
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In the diagram below, which of the following is occurring at point #4.  \n a. Na+ activation gate opens quickly. \n b. Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly. \n c. K+ activation gate begins to open slowly. \n d. Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly. \n e. K+ activation gate begins to close slowly. \n f. Na+ activation gate closes quickly.
In the diagram below, which of the following is occurring at point #4. \n a. Na+ activation gate opens quickly. \n b. Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly. \n c. K+ activation gate begins to open slowly. \n d. Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly. \n e. K+ activation gate begins to close slowly. \n f. Na+ activation gate closes quickly.
F (Na+ activation gate closes quickly.)
32
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In the diagram below, which of the following is occurring at point #2.  \n a. Na+ activation gate opens quickly. \n b. Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly. \n c. K+ activation gate begins to open slowly. \n d. Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly. \n e. K+ activation gate begins to close slowly. \n f. Na+ activation gate closes quickly.
In the diagram below, which of the following is occurring at point #2. \n a. Na+ activation gate opens quickly. \n b. Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly. \n c. K+ activation gate begins to open slowly. \n d. Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly. \n e. K+ activation gate begins to close slowly. \n f. Na+ activation gate closes quickly.
B, C (Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly, K+ activation gate begins to open slowly.)
33
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In the diagram below, which of the following is occurring at point #3.  \n a. Na+ activation gate opens quickly. \n b. Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly. \n c. K+ activation gate begins to open slowly. \n d. Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly. \n e. K+ activation gate begins to close slowly. \n f. Na+ activation gate opens quickly.
In the diagram below, which of the following is occurring at point #3. \n a. Na+ activation gate opens quickly. \n b. Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly. \n c. K+ activation gate begins to open slowly. \n d. Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly. \n e. K+ activation gate begins to close slowly. \n f. Na+ activation gate opens quickly.
D, E (Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly, K+ activation gate begins to close slowly.)
34
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In the diagram above, which of the following is occurring at point #1.  \n a. Na+ activation gate opens quickly. \n b. Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly. \n c. K+ activation gate begins to open slowly. \n d. Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly. \n e. K+ activation gate begins to close slowly. \n f. Na+ activation gate opens quickly.
In the diagram above, which of the following is occurring at point #1. \n a. Na+ activation gate opens quickly. \n b. Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly. \n c. K+ activation gate begins to open slowly. \n d. Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly. \n e. K+ activation gate begins to close slowly. \n f. Na+ activation gate opens quickly.
A (Na+ activation gate opens quickly.)
35
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In the diagram below, which point does the Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly and the K+ activation gate begins to open slowly? \n a. Point 1. \n b. Point 2. \n c. Point 3. \n d. Point 4.
In the diagram below, which point does the Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly and the K+ activation gate begins to open slowly? \n a. Point 1. \n b. Point 2. \n c. Point 3. \n d. Point 4.
B (Point 2)
36
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In the diagram above, which point does the Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly and the K+ activation gate begins to close slowly? \n a. Point 1. \n b. Point 2. \n c. Point 3. \n d. Point 4.
In the diagram above, which point does the Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly and the K+ activation gate begins to close slowly? \n a. Point 1. \n b. Point 2. \n c. Point 3. \n d. Point 4.
C (Point 3)
37
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In the diagram above, which of the following is occurring at point #2.  \n a. K+ activation gate begins to close slowly. \n b. Na+ activation gate opens quickly. \n c. Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly. \n d. Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly. \n e. Na+ activation gate opens quickly. \n f. K+ activation gate begins to open slowly.
In the diagram above, which of the following is occurring at point #2. \n a. K+ activation gate begins to close slowly. \n b. Na+ activation gate opens quickly. \n c. Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly. \n d. Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly. \n e. Na+ activation gate opens quickly. \n f. K+ activation gate begins to open slowly.
C, F (Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly, K+ activation gate begins to open slowly)
38
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In the diagram above, which of the following is occurring at point #3.  \n a. K+ activation gate begins to close slowly. \n b. Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly. \n c. Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly. \n d. Na+ activation gate opens quickly. \n e. K+ activation gate begins to open slowly. \n f. Na+ activation gate opens quickly.
In the diagram above, which of the following is occurring at point #3. \n a. K+ activation gate begins to close slowly. \n b. Na+ inactivation gate begins to close slowly. \n c. Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly. \n d. Na+ activation gate opens quickly. \n e. K+ activation gate begins to open slowly. \n f. Na+ activation gate opens quickly.
A, C (K+ activation gate begins to close slowly, Na+ inactivation gate begins to open slowly)
39
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The diagram below shows the activation and inactivation gates of the Na+ channel and the activation gate of the K+ channel. Which “phase of the action potential” is represented by this diagram? \n a. The membrane potential is at rest. \n b. The membrane potential is at threshold. \n c. The membrane is depolarizing. \n d. The membrane is at the peak of the depolarisation. \n e. The membrane is repolarizing. \n f. The membrane is hyperpolarized.
The diagram below shows the activation and inactivation gates of the Na+ channel and the activation gate of the K+ channel. Which “phase of the action potential” is represented by this diagram? \n a. The membrane potential is at rest. \n b. The membrane potential is at threshold. \n c. The membrane is depolarizing. \n d. The membrane is at the peak of the depolarisation. \n e. The membrane is repolarizing. \n f. The membrane is hyperpolarized.
A (The membrane potential is at rest)
40
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The diagram below shows the activation and inactivation gates of the Na+ channel and the activation gate of the K+ channel. Which “phase of the action potential” is represented by this diagram? \n a. The membrane potential is at rest. \n b. The membrane potential is at threshold. \n c. The membrane is depolarizing. \n d. The membrane is at the peak of the depolarisation. \n e. The membrane is repolarizing. \n f. The membrane is hyperpolarized.
The diagram below shows the activation and inactivation gates of the Na+ channel and the activation gate of the K+ channel. Which “phase of the action potential” is represented by this diagram? \n a. The membrane potential is at rest. \n b. The membrane potential is at threshold. \n c. The membrane is depolarizing. \n d. The membrane is at the peak of the depolarisation. \n e. The membrane is repolarizing. \n f. The membrane is hyperpolarized.
D (The membrane is at the peak of the depolarisation)
41
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Which of the following is true regarding the axon hillock (spike trigger zone; spike initiation zone)?
It is the site of action potential generation.
42
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Which of the following is not a component of a neuron?
Myelin
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Which of the following on the post-synaptic cells receive neural signals from pre-synaptic cells?
a. Dendrites.
b. Cell body.
c. Axon hillock.
d. Axon.
e. Synaptic terminals.
f. Myelin.
A & B (Dendrites & Cell body)
44
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True or False: The word “nerve” is just another term for a neuron that is located outside of the central nervous system.
False
45
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Which of the following regarding glial cells and their function is correct?
Microglia, removes waste; Astrocytes, hold neurons in place and form the blood-brain barrier; Oligodendrocytes, form myelin.
46
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What is the difference between a Schwann cell and an oligodendrocyte?
Schwann cells are in the peripheral nervous system; oligodendrocytes are in the central nervous system.
47
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Which of the following is a description of membrane potential?
The electrical potential (i.e., voltage) that exists across a plasma membrane
48
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True or False: At rest, the inside of a cell is negative with respect to the outside of the cell?
True
49
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Sodium ions (Na+), potassium ions (K+) and negatively charged anions (A-; e.g., proteins; peptides) are the major contributors to the membrane potential. Which of them cannot cross a plasma membrane?
Anions-
50
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What are the correct values for the intracellular and extracellular values of Na+?
\[Na+]inside \= 15 mmol l-1; [Na+outside] \= 150 mmol l-1
51
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What are the correct values for the intracellular and extracellular values of K+?
\[K+]inside \= 150 mmol l-1; [K+outside] \= 5 mmol l-1
52
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What are the correct values for the intracellular and extracellular values of the negatively-charged
anions (A-)?
\[A-]inside \= 100 mmol l-1; [A-outside] \= 0 mmol l-1
53
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What does the sodium-potassium ATPase (Na+-K+ ATPase) do?
It simultaneously pumps 3 Na+ out of the cell and 2 K+ in to the cell.
54
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Which of the following are correct regarding the movement of Na+ and K+ through their respective ion channels?
The Na+ channel allows Na+ to move into the cell; the K+ channel allows K+ to move out of the cell.
55
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Which of the following is larger?
Threshold potential
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Which of the following with respect to membrane potential (Em) during these different phases of an
action potential, is correct?
Depolarization \= Em becomes more positive (increases); repolarization \= Em becomes more negative (decreases); hyperpolarization \= Em becomes more negative than the resting potential
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Which of the following describe an action potential?
a. A large and rapid increase in membrane potential followed by a rapid decrease in membrane potential.
b. A large and rapid depolarization followed by a repolarization of equivalent magnitude and a possible
hyperpolarization.
c. A large and rapid increase in membrane potential followed by a rapid decrease in membrane potential that often goes below resting potential.
All of the above (A large and rapid increase in membrane potential followed by a rapid decrease in membrane potential, A large and rapid depolarization followed by a repolarization of equivalent magnitude and a possible
hyperpolarization, & A large and rapid increase in membrane potential followed by a rapid decrease in membrane potential that often goes below resting potential
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Which of the following is not correct?
The K+ channel has an inactivation gate.
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Which of the following is not correct regarding the Na+ channel activation gate?
a. The Na+ channel activation gate is closed at rest.
b. The Na+ channel activation gate opens quickly as Em reaches threshold during depolarisation.
c. The Na+ channel activation gate closes quickly as Em falls below threshold during repolarization.
All of the above (a, b, c)
60
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Which of the following is not correct regarding the Na+ channel inactivation gate?
a. At rest, the Na+ channel inactivation gate is open.
b. The Na+ channel inactivation gate closes slowly as Em approaches the peak Em during depolarisation.
c. The Na+ channel inactivation gate opens rapidly as Em decreases during repolarization.
C (The Na+ channel inactivation gate opens rapidly as Em decreases during repolarization)
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Which of the following regarding the Na+ channel are correct?
a. At rest the Na+ channel activation gate is closed and the Na+ channel inactivation gate is open.
b. During depolarization, the Na+ channel activation gate closes quickly and the Na+ channel inactivation gate
opens slowly.
c. During repolarization, the Na+ channel activation gate opens quickly and the Na+ channel inactivation gate
closes slowly.
A (At rest the Na+ channel activation gate is closed and the Na+ channel inactivation gate is open.)
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Which of the following regarding the K+ channel activation gate is not correct?
a. At rest the K+ channel activation gate is closed.
b. The K+ channel activation gate opens slowly as Em approaches the peak Em during depolarisation.
c. The K+ channel activation gate closes rapidly as Em decreases during repolarization.
C (The K+ channel activation gate closes rapidly as Em decreases during repolarization.)
63
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Which of the following regarding the Na+ and K+ channel activation and inactivation gates is not
correct?
a. The Na+ channel activation gate is closed at rest.
b. The Na+ channel inactivation gate is open at rest.
c. The K+ channel activation gate is open at rest.
d. The Na+ channel activation gate opens quickly as Em reaches threshold during depolarisation.
e. The Na+ channel inactivation gate closes slowly as Em approaches the peak Em during depolarisation.
f. The K+ channel activation gate opens slowly as Em approaches the peak Em during depolarisation.
g. The Na+ channel inactivation gate closes quickly as Em falls below threshold during repolarization.
h. The Na+ channel activation gate opens slowly as Em decreases during repolarization.
i. The K+ channel activation gate closes slowly as Em decreases during repolarization.
C, G, H (The K+ channel activation gate is open at rest, the Na+ channel inactivation gate closes quickly as Em falls below threshold during repolarization, the Na+ channel activation gate opens slowly as Em decreases during repolarization.
64
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Which of the following regarding the Na+ and K+ channel activation and inactivation gates is not
correct?
a. The K+ channel activation gate is closed at rest.
b. The K+ channel activation gate opens slowly as Em approaches the peak Em during depolarisation.
c. The K+ channel activation gate closes slowly as Em decreases during repolarization.
d. The Na+ channel inactivation gate is open at rest.
e. The Na+ channel inactivation gate closes slowly as Em approaches the peak Em during depolarisation.
f. The Na+ channel inactivation gate opens slowly as Em decreases during repolarization.
g. The Na+ channel activation gate is closed at rest.
h. The Na+ channel activation gate opens quickly as Em reaches threshold during depolarisation.
i. The Na+ channel activation gate closes quickly as Em falls below threshold during repolarization.
All of the above
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Which of the following are correct?
a. Depolarisation, K+ moves into the cell.
b. Repolarisation; K+ stops moving into the cell; Na+ moves out of the cell.
c. Hyperpolarisation: Excess Na+ has left the cell.
d. Return to rest: Na+/K+ ATPase restored intracellular and extracellular Na+ and K+ levels to normal.
D (Return to rest: Na+/K+ ATPase restored intracellular and extracellular Na+ and K+ levels to normal)
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Which of the following are incorrect?
a. Depolarisation, Na+ moves into the cell.
b. Repolarisation; Na+ stops moving into the cell; K+ moves out of the cell.
c. Hyperpolarisation: Excess K+ has left the cell.
d. Return to rest: Na+/K+ ATPase restored intracellular and extracellular Na+ and K+ levels to normal.
All of the above
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Saltatory conduction involves all of the following except?
a. The plasma membrane of the axon depolarizes at the Nodes of Ranvier.
b. The action potential jumps from Node of Ranvier to Node of Ranvier.
c. The plasma membrane between the Nodes of Ranvier depolarizes as current passes through it.
d. Na+ ions cross the myelin sheath.
e. The action potential generated at any given Node of Ranvier moves forwards for the entire length of the axon but can only move backward to the previous Node of Ranvier.
C, D, E (The plasma membrane between the Nodes of Ranvier depolarizes as current passes through it, Na+ ions cross the myelin sheath, The action potential generated at any given Node of Ranvier moves forwards for the entire length of the axon but can only move backward to the previous Node of Ranvier
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An action potential can move backward. True or False?
False
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The existence of the refractory period prevents action potentials from moving backward. True or False.
True
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Which of the following regarding electrical versus chemical synapses is correct?
a. Synaptic transmission at a chemical synapse is faster than that at an electrical synapse.
b. Synaptic transmission at a chemical synapse is slower than that at an electrical synapse.
c. Synaptic transmission at a chemical synapse is the same speed as that at an electrical synapse.
B (Synaptic transmission at a chemical synapse is slower than that at an electrical synapse.)
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Which of the following happen at excitatory and inhibitory synapses?
a. An excitatory neurotransmitter released at a chemical synapse will open Na+ channels and lead to a depolarisation.
b. An inhibitory neurotransmitter released at a chemical synapse will open Cl- channels and lead to a hyperpolarization.
c. An excitatory neurotransmitter released at a chemical synapse will close Cl- channels and lead to a depolarization.
d. An inhibitory neurotransmitter released at a chemical synapse will close Na+ channels and lead to a hyperpolarization.
A, B (An excitatory neurotransmitter released at a chemical synapse will open Na+ channels and lead to a depolarisation, an inhibitory neurotransmitter released at a chemical synapse will open Cl- channels and lead to a hyperpolarization.)
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Where is the pineal gland and what is its function?
In the brain; produces melatonin.
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2. Which of the following regarding circulating hormones is/are not correct?
a. Synthesised within an endocrine secretory gland.
b. Enter the blood and travel within the circulation to their target tissues.
c. Bind to hormone receptors on or within the target cells.
d. Adrenaline and cortisol are examples of circulating hormones.
All of the above
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Which of the following regarding neurohormones is/are not correct?
a. Synthesised within an endocrine secretory gland.
b. Enter the blood and travel within the circulation to their target tissues.
c. Bind to hormone receptors on or within the target cells.
d. Cortisol and oxytocin are examples of neurohormones.
A, D (Synthesised within an endocrine secretory gland, Cortisol and oxytocin are examples of neurohormones)
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Which of the following regarding autocrine/paracrine hormones is/are correct?
a. Synthesised within an endocrine secretory gland.
b. Enter the blood and travel within the circulation to their target tissues.
c. Bind to hormone receptors on the cell-type that released them or other cells close by.
d. Any hormone that is classified as a “circulating hormone” or “neurohormone” could function in an autocrine/paracrine manner.
A, C, D (Synthesised within an endocrine secretory gland, Bind to hormone receptors on the cell-type that released them or other cells close by, Any hormone that is classified as a “circulating hormone” or “neurohormone” could function in an autocrine/paracrine manner)
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Which type of hormones are catecholamines?
Amine hormones
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Which of the following are true regarding the role (hormone or neurotransmitter) played by the
catecholamines, dopamine, noradrenaline and adrenaline?
a. Dopamine, hormone; Noradrenaline, neurotransmitter and hormone; Adrenaline, neurotransmitter.
b. Dopamine, neurotransmitter; Noradrenaline, hormone; Adrenaline, hormone.
c. Dopamine, hormone; Noradrenaline, neurotransmitter; Adrenaline, hormone.
d. Dopamine, neurotransmitter; Noradrenaline, neurotransmitter; Adrenaline, hormone.
e. Dopamine, neurotransmitter and hormone; Noradrenaline, neurotransmitter and hormone; Adrenaline,
hormone.
f. Dopamine, neurotransmitter; Noradrenaline, neurotransmitter and hormone; Adrenaline, hormone.
g. Dopamine, neurotransmitter and hormone; Noradrenaline, neurotransmitter and hormone; Adrenaline,
neurotransmitter and hormone.
D (Dopamine, neurotransmitter; Noradrenaline, neurotransmitter and hormone; Adrenaline, hormone.)
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Which of these best describes renin?
a. Steroid hormones.
b. Peptide hormones.
c. Amine hormones.
d. Catechol hormones.
e. Carboxyl hormones.
f. None of the above.
f. None of the above
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Which of the following with respect to the renin-angiotensin system is/are not correct?
a. Renin is released from the liver into the blood.
b. Angiotensinogen is released from the kidney into the blood.
c. Renin cleaves off a small part of angiotensinogen thereby producing angiotensin I.
d. Angiotensin I is converted into angiotensin II by angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) that line the walls of capillaries within the liver.
e. Angiotensin II (and angiotensin I) have multiple effects on blood pressure, water balance and ion regulation.
A, B, D (Renin is released from the liver into the blood, Angiotensinogen is released from the kidney into the blood, Angiotensin I is converted into angiotensin II by angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) that line the walls of capillaries within the liver)
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True or False: In humans, angiotensin II has a greater pressor effect (pressor effect \= increases blood pressure) than any other biologically-relevant substance or system found in humans.
True
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Which of the following is/are not a feature of steroid hormones?
a. They are derivatives of cholesterol.
b. They are lipophobic (hydrophilic).
c. They bind to hormone receptors within the cell rather than those on the plasma membrane.
d. They are transported in the blood via carrier proteins.
e. All of the above are features of steroid hormones.
b. They are lipophobic (hydrophilic).
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Which of the following features of steroid hormones result from their lipophilic nature?
a. They regulate growth, mineral balance and sexual/reproductive function.
b. They need to undergo metabolism in the liver before being excreted in the urine.
c. They bind to hormone receptors within the cell rather than those on the plasma membrane.
d. They are transported in the blood via carrier proteins.
e. A and B.
f. B and C.
g. C and D.
h. All of the above (A, B, C and D) features of steroid hormones result from their hydrophobic nature.
h. All of the above (A, B, C and D)
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Which of the following is not a type and example of a type of steroid?
a. Sex steroids such as estrogen and testosterone
b. Mineralocorticoids such as aldosterone.
c. Glucocorticoids such as cortisol.
d. Metabolocorticoids such as growth hormone.
e. All of the above are types of steroids and an example of each type.
d. Metabolocorticoids such as growth hormone.
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13. Which of the following is not part of the series of events that lead to a circulating hormone to exert it’s
physiological or biochemical effect?
a. A hormone is secreted into the blood and travels to its target tissue.
b. The hormone binds to a receptor on the plasma membrane.
c. A signal transduction pathway is activated.
d. There can be cytoplasmic responses such as opening an ion channel or altering transcription.
e. All of the above are part of the series of events that lead to a circulating hormone exerting its effect.
e. All of the above are part of the series of events that lead to a circulating hormone exerting its effect.
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Which of the following signal transduction/second messenger events is/are most likely to happen?
a. Activation of a protein kinase and inactivation of a protein phosphatase.
b. Activation of a protein phosphatase and inactivation of a protein kinase.
c. Inactivation of a protein kinase and inactivation of a protein phosphatase.
d. Activation of a protein kinase and activation of a protein phosphatase.
e. A and B.
f. C and D.
g. All of the above (A, B, C and D) are equally likely to happen.
e. A and B.
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When a steroid hormone binds to its receptor on a target cell, where is this most likely to happen?
a. On the plasma membrane.
b. In the cytosol.
c. In the nucleus.
d. A and B.
e. A and C.
f. B and C.
g. A, B and C.
f. B and C.
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When a steroid hormone triggers an alteration in transcription, what binds to the DNA to initiate this
alteration?
The complex of the steroid hormone and the steroid hormone’s receptor.
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Which of the following, with respect to oxytocin and anti-diuretic hormone (vasopressin), is/are
correct?
a. They are produced within neurosecretory neurons within the thalamus.
b. They are transported from the cell bodies within the thalamus, down the axon, to the nerve terminals located
in the anterior pituitary.
c. They are stored in these nerve terminals within the anterior pituitary.
d. They are released into the blood upon appropriate stimuli.
e. All of the above are correct.
f. None of the above are correct.
d. They are released into the blood upon appropriate stimuli.
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What are the functions of oxytocin and anti-diuretic hormone (ADH; vasopressin)?
Oxytocin stimulates milk production and uterine contraction; ADH reduces urine production.
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In addition to oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, the hypothalamus has a host of other
neurosecretory cells that influence the activity of the pituitary gland. Which of the following steps in this
process is/are incorrect?
a. Releasing-hormones (RH) and inhibiting hormones (IH) are produced within neurosecretory cells in the
hypothalamus.
b. These RH and IH are secreted into a capillary bed within the hypothalamus.
c. This capillary bed drains into a portal vein (the hypothalamic-pituitary portal vein) which transports the RH
and IH to a capillary bed within the anterior pituitary.
d. RH and IH diffuse out of these capillaries and then stimulate and inhibit, respectively, the release of various
anterior pituitary hormones.
e. A and C.
f. B and D.
g. All of these processes are correct.
g. All of these processes are correct
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Which of the following is/are not anterior pituitary hormones?
a. Thyroid releasing hormone (TRH).
b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
c. Growth hormone (GH).
d. Prolactin.
e. Gonadotropins such as testosterone and progesterone.
f. Endorphins.
A, E
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Which of the following is correct with respect to these particular anterior pituitary hormones and
their function?
a. Gonadotropins produce gametes and hormones; growth hormone promotes growth; prolactin produces milk;
endorphins inhibit pain perception.
b. Gonadotropins produce gametes and hormones; growth hormone inhibits growth; prolactin produces milk;
endorphins inhibit pain perception.
c. Gonadotropins produce milk; growth hormone promotes growth; prolactin produces gametes and hormones;
endorphins enhance pain perception.
d. Gonadotropins produce milk; growth hormone promotes growth; inhibits produces gametes and hormones;
endorphins enhance pain perception.
e. Gonadotropins produce milk; growth hormone promotes growth; prolactin produces gametes and hormones;
endorphins enhance pain perception.
f. Gonadotropins produce gametes and hormones; growth hormone promotes growth; prolactin produces milk;
endorphins inhibit pain perception.
f. Gonadotropins produce gametes and hormones; growth hormone promotes growth; prolactin produces milk; endorphins inhibit pain perception.
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Which of the following regarding the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis is incorrect?
a. Hypothalamus produces thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH).
b. TRH stimulates the anterior pituitary to produce thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
c. TSH stimulates the thyroid gland to produce the hormones T3 and T4.
d. T3 and T4 provide feedback inhibition to reduce further release of TRH and enhance release of TSH.
e. T3 and T4 stimulate growth and metabolism.
d. T3 and T4 provide feedback inhibition to reduce further release of TRH and enhance release of TSH.
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Which of the following is a function of the thyroid gland?
a. The thyroid gland produces calcitonin when plasma calcium levels are too high.
b. The thyroid gland produces calcitonin when plasma calcium levels are too low.
c. The thyroid gland produces parathyroid hormone when plasma calcium levels are too high.
d. The thyroid gland produces parathyroid hormone when plasma calcium levels are too low.
a. The thyroid gland produces calcitonin when plasma calcium levels are too high.
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Which of the following is a function of the parathyroid gland?
a. The parathyroid gland produces calcitonin hormone when plasma calcium levels are too low.
b. The parathyroid gland produces calcitonin hormone when plasma calcium levels are too high.
c. The parathyroid gland produces parathyroid hormone when plasma calcium levels are too low.
d. The parathyroid gland produces parathyroid hormone when plasma calcium levels are too high.
c. The parathyroid gland produces parathyroid hormone when plasma calcium levels are too low.
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Which of the following are caused by calcitonin?
a. Stimulates calcium deposition in bone.
b. Reduces calcium uptake in the kidneys.
c. Decreases calcium uptake in the intestine.
d. Stimulates calcium release from bone.
e. Stimulates calcium uptake in the kidneys.
f. Increases calcium uptake in the intestine.
A, B
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Which of the following are caused by parathyroid hormone?
a. Stimulates calcium deposition in bone.
b. Stimulates calcium release from bone.
c. Stimulates calcium uptake in the kidneys.
d. Reduces calcium uptake in the kidneys.
e. Decreases calcium uptake in the intestine.
f. Increases calcium uptake in the intestine.
B, C, F
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Which of the following regarding the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis is incorrect?
a. The hypothalamus produces corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH).
b. CRH stimulates the anterior pituitary to produce adrenocorticotropic-releasing hormone (ACTH).
c. ACTH stimulates the adrenal medulla to release cortisol.
d. Cortisol inhibits further CRH and ACTH release.
e. Cortisol enhances energy availability.
c. ACTH stimulates the adrenal medulla to release cortisol.
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Which of the following regarding the adrenal gland are correct?
a. The adrenal glands sit on top of the kidneys.
b. The adrenal medulla releases the catecholamine hormones, dopamine and noradrenaline.
c. The adrenal cortex releases cortisol and other steroids such as aldosterone.
d. The adrenal medulla and the catecholamine hormones are part of the long-term stress response.
e. The adrenal cortex and the steroid hormones it releases are part of the short-term stress response.
f. Catecholamines are released from the adrenal medulla in response to stimulation by ACTH.
g. Cortisol is released from the adrenal cortex in response to stimulation by ACTH.
h. Catecholamines increase cardiovascular and respiratory function while mobilizing energy stores.
i. Cortisol mobilizes energy stores and increases energy availability.
A, C, G, H, I
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Which of the following regarding the adrenal gland are incorrect?
a. The adrenal glands sit on top of the kidneys.
b. Catecholamines increase cardiovascular and respiratory function while mobilizing energy stores.
c. Cortisol is released from the adrenal cortex in response to stimulation by ACTH.
d. The adrenal medulla releases the catecholamine hormones, dopamine, noradrenaline and adrenaline.
e. The adrenal cortex and the peptide hormones it releases are part of the long-term stress response.
f. Cortisol mobilizes energy stores and increases energy availability.
g. Catecholamines are released from the adrenal medulla in response to stimulation by sympathetic nerves.
h. The adrenal cortex releases cortisol and other steroids such as testosterone.
i. The adrenal medulla and the catecholamine hormones are part of the short-term stress response.
D, E, H