Microbiology FINAL

Each of the following organisms would be considered a microbe EXCEPT

a. bacterium

b. yeast

c. virus

d. protozoan

e. mushroom

e. mushroom

In the name Staphylococcus aureus, aureus is the

a. specific epithet

b. genus

c. kingdom

d. family name

e. domain name

a. specific epithet

Viruses are not considered living organisms because they

a. are structurally very simple

b. are ubiquitous in nature

c. cannot reproduce by themselves

d. are typically associated with disease

e. can only be visualized using an electron microscope

c. cannot reproduce by themselves

The first step for directly linking a microbe to a specific disease according to Kochs postulates is to

a. obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal

b. compare the blood of a sick animal to blood obtained from a healthy animal

c. isolate microbes from the blood of healthy animal

d. culture the blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal using nutrient medium

e. inject a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal into a healthy animal

a. obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal

Robert Koch identified the cause of

a. diphtheria

b. rabies

c. smallpox

d. AIDS

e. anthrax

e. anthrax

Microorganisms are beneficial to humans in all of the following ways EXCEPT

a. Pseudomonas, molds, and other microorganisms break down lettuce and strawberries at refrigerator temp

b fermenting microorganisms produce yogurt and sauerkraut from milk and cabbage

c. soil microorganisms break down matter

d. marine and freshwater organisms form the basis of food web

e. some microorganisms live symbiotically with plants and transform nitrogen gas into organic compounds

a. Pseudomonas, molds, and other microorganisms break down lettuce and strawberries at refrigerator temp

Gene therapy is currently used to treat all of the following diseases EXCEPT

a. severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID).

b. Duchenne's muscular dystrophy.

c. colon cancer.

d. LDL-receptor deficiency.

e. cystic fibrosis.

c. colon cancer.

Development of emerging infectious disease can be a result of all of the following EXCEPT

a. microbial mutation.

b. overuse of antibiotics.

c. use of genetically modified foods.

d. modern transportation.

e. changes in the environment.

c. use of genetically modified foods.

all of the below are examples of a biofilm EXCEPT

a. dental plaque

b. archaea as part of the plankton community in the open ocean

c. infection of patient catheter

d. slimy layer on riverbed rocks

e. vegetation on patient heart valve

b. archaea as part of the plankton community in the open ocean

a virus measures 100 nm in length. what is its length in ul?

a. 0.001 um

b. 10 um

c. 0.01 um

d. 0.1 um

e. 1 um

d. 0.1 um

which of the following places the steps of the gram stain is in the correct order

1-Alcohol-acetone

2-Crystal violet

3-Safranin

4-Iodine

A) 1-2-3-4

B) 2-1-4-3

C) 2-4-1-3

D) 4-3-2-1

E) 1-3-2-4

C) 2-4-1-3

which of the following is not true regarding the acid-fast stain?

A) It is used to identify members of the genus Mycobacterium.

B) Acid-fast cells retain the primary dye after treatment with acid-alcohol.

C) If cells are acid-fast, they are gram-negative.

D) Acid-fast cells appear red in a completed acid-fast stain.

E) Non-acid-fast microbes appear blue in a completed acid-fast stain.

C) If cells are acid-fast, they are gram-negative.

The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is to

A) remove the simple stain.

B) make the bacterial cells larger.

C) make the flagella visible.

D) prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells.

E) make gram-negative cells visible.

D) prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells.

Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in which microscope?

A) compound light microscope

B) phase-contrast microscope

C) darkfield microscope

D) fluorescence microscope

E) electron microscope

A) compound light microscope

Which microscope achieves the highest magnification and greatest resolution?

A) compound light microscope

B) phase-contrast microscope

C) darkfield microscope

D) fluorescence microscope

E) electron microscope

E) electron microscope

The ability of a lens to gather light is referred to as its

a. refraction

b. magnification

c. resolution

d. contrast

e. numerical aperture

e. numerical aperture

the microscope preferred for viewing living specimens is the __________ microscope.

A) phase-contrast

B) scanning electron

C) transmission electron

D) scanning tunneling

E) bright-field

A) phase-contrast

which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic cells?

a. They reproduce by binary fission.

b. They lack a plasma membrane.

c. They typically have a circular chromosome.

d. They lack membrane-enclosed organelles.

e. Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane.

b. They lack a plasma membrane.

By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration?

A) simple diffusion

B) facilitated diffusion

C) active transport

D) extracellular enzymes

E) aquaporins

C) active transport

Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of most bacterial plasma membranes?

A) site of energy production

B) composed of a phospholipid bilayer

C) contains proteins

D) contains cholesterol

E) is selectively permeable

D) contains cholesterol

Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is streptococci?

D

Which drawing in Figure 4.1 possesses an axial filament?

A

which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. a cell produces one endospore and keeps growing

b. a cell can produce many endospores

c. endospores are for reproduction

d. endospores are easily stained in a gram stain

e. endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes by producting a dormant period with no growth

e. endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes by producting a dormant period with no growth

Which of the following terms best describes the cell in Figure 4.2?

A) peritrichous flagella

B) amphitrichous flagella

C) lophotrichous flagella

D) monotrichous flagellum

E) axial filament

C) lophotrichous flagella

what will happen if a bacterial cell is pretreated with a lysozyme solution, then placed in distilled water?

A) The cell will plasmolyze.

B) The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.

C) Water will leave the cell.

D) Lysozyme will diffuse into the cell.

E) No change will result; the solution is isotonic.

B) The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.

Which of the following pairs are mismatched?

A) metachromatic granules - phosphate storage

B) lipid inclusions - energy reserve

C) ribosomes - carbon storage

D) sulfur granules - energy reserve

E) gas vacuoles - flotation

C) ribosomes - carbon storage

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall possesses lipid A/endotoxin responsible for symptoms associated with infection?

A) a

B) b

C) both a and b

D) neither a nor b

E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

B) b

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains teichoic acids?

A) a

B) b

C) both a and b

D) neither a nor b

E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

A) a

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is resistant to many antibiotics (e.g., penicillin)?

A) a

B) b

C) both a and b

D) neither a nor b

E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

B) b

In bacterial ribosomes, a small 30S subunit and a large 50S subunit come together to produce the functional 70S ribosome. Why isnt it 80S ribosome?

d. S stands for Svedberg units, which indicates the relative rate of sedimentation due to size, weight, and shape of a particle. The numbers aren't strictly additive.

Who is credited with first observing microorganisms?

A) Robert Koch

B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

C) Carolus Linnaeus

D) Louis Pasteur

E) Robert Hooke

B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

The arguments supporting spontaneous generation were finally disproved by

A) Francesco Redi.

B) John Needham.

C) Rudolf Virchow.

D) Louis Pasteur.

E) Lazzaro Spallanzani.

D) Louis Pasteur.

Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by

A) Wasserman.

B) Lister.

C) Semmelweis.

D) Pasteur.

E) Koch.

E) Koch

The use of phenol (carbolic acid) as a wound disinfectant was first practiced by

A) Semmelweis.

B) Koch.

C) Pasteur.

D) Holmes.

E) Lister.

E) Lister.

________ is the physician first associated with vaccination.

A) Escherich

B) Jenner

C) Pasteur

D) Lister

E) Koch

B) Jenner

penicillin was discovered by accident by.

fleming

Who was the first scientist to pursue a "magic bullet" that could be used to treat infectious disease?

A) Pasteur

B) Ehrlich

C) Semmelweis

D) Jenner

E) Lister

B) Ehrlich

The three domains proposed by Carl Woese are the Archaea, the Eukarya, and the Monera.

t/f

False

The counter stain used in Gram stain is a basic dye.

t/f

true

A resolution of 1 um would be better than a resolution of 0.5 um.

t/f

false

The greater resolution of the electron microscope compared to the compound microscope is due to the longer wavelengths of the electrons used to examine specimens,

t/f

false

Prokaryotes lack organelles

t/f

true

Spheroplasts, protoplasts, and mycoplasms are bacterial cells without cell walls.

t/f

true

members of genera Bacillus and Clostridium can be identified using the endospore stain

t/f

true

which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in figure 5.1?

a. NADH

b. NADH and isocitric acid

c. Isocitric acid and α - ketoglutaric acid

d. NAD +

e. α - ketoglutaric acid and NAD +

d. NAD +

from the list below, which is not produced during the Krebs cycle?

a. NADH

b. ATP

c. FADH2

d. CO2

e. NADPH

e. NADPH

a bacterium that only possesses the ability to ferment obtains energy

a. only in the abs of oxygen

b. only in the pres of oxygen

c. by aerobic respiration only

d. by glycolysis only

e. by fermentation or aerobic respiration

d. by glycolysis only

photophosphorylation during photosynthesis differs from oxidative phosphorylation during cellular respiration in that

a. it involves an electron transport chain

b. energy is stored in the form of proton (H+) concentration difference

c. the final electron acceptor is NADP+ and not oxygen.

d. generation of ATP is driven by a flow of protons (H+) through ATP synthase

c. the final electron acceptor is NADP+ and not oxygen.

in noncyclic photophosphorylation, O2 is released from

A) C₆H₁₂O₆

B) chlorophyll.

C) sunlight.

D) 2H₂O

E) CO₂.

D) 2H₂O

Which of the following is the best definition of fermentation?

A)complete catabolism of glucose to CO₂ and H₂O

B) the partial reduction of glucose to pyruvic acid

C) the partial oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors

D) the production of energy by both substrate and oxidative phosphorylation

E) production of energy by oxidative-level phosphorylation

C) the partial oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors

The rates of O2 and glucose consumption by a bacterial culture are shown in Figure 5.6. Assume a bacterial culture was grown in a glucose medium without O2. Then O2 was added at the time marked X. The data indicate that

A) These bacteria don't use O2.

B) These bacteria get more energy anaerobically.

C) Aerobic metabolism is more efficient than fermentation.

D) These bacteria can't grow anaerobically.

C) Aerobic metabolism is more efficient than fermentation.

How is ATP generated in the reaction shown in Figure 5.4?

A) Glycolysis

B) Fermentation

C) Photophosphorylation

D) Oxidative phosphorylation

E) Substrate-level phosphorylation

E) Substrate-level phosphorylation

which of the following statements regarding the glycolysis pathway is FALSE?

A) Two pyruvate molecules are generated.

B) Four ATP molecules are generated via substrate-level phosphorylation.

C) Two NADH molecules are generated.

D) One molecule of ATP is expended.

E) Two molecules of water are generated.

D) One molecule of ATP is expended.

In green and purple bacteria, electrons to reduce CO2 can come from

A) CO2.

B) H2O.

C) C6H12O6.

D) H2S.

E) chlorophyll.

D) H2S.

which is the following options lists the stages in cellular respiration in the correct order?

-glycolysis

-citric acid cycle

-oxidative phosphorylation

During which of the following phases of cellular respiration does substrate-level phosphorylation take place?

a. citric acid cycle

b. oxidative phosphorylation

c. glycolysis and citric acid cycle

d. glycolysis

c. glycolysis and citric acid cycle

Which of the following metabolic pathways is common to both aerobic and anaerobic processes of sugar breakdown?

A) the citric acid cycle

B) the electron transport chain

C) conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid

D) glycolysis

D) glycolysis

In Figure 5.8, where is ATP produced?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

E

Refer to Figure 5.8. In aerobic respiration, where is water formed in _________ from _________?

A) atp synthase, adp, and p

B) b ,from NAD and H+

C) e, O2, e- and H+

D) d, O2, e- and H+

E) c, FAFH2 and e-

D) d, O2, e- and H+

In Figure 5.8, the path labeled (2) is the flow of

A) Electrons.

B) Protons.

C) Energy.

D) Water.

E) Glucose.

B) Protons.

NADH pills can be purchased over the counter and are often taken by suffered of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS). how might these pills benefit a CFS patient?

they would increase the number of electrons provided to the electron transport chain

NADH molecules formed during glycolysis and in the Krebs Cycle are:

a. oxidized when electrons are needed in anabolic pathways.

b. stored in the mitochondria.

c. transported out of the cell during oxidative phosphorylation.

d. oxidized when electrons are passed to NADP+.

e. oxidized when electrons are passed to the electron transport chain.

e. oxidized when electrons are passed to the electron transport chain.

Most bacteria reproduce by:

a) sexual reproduction

b) binary fission

c) budding

d) homologous recombination

b) binary fission

An experiment began with 4 cells and ended with 256 cells. How many generations did the

cells go through?

A) 64

B) 32

C) 6

D) 5

E) 4

C) 6

In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a microaerophile?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

e

In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a facultative anaerobe?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

B

Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2?

A) catalase

B) oxidase

C) peroxidase

D) superoxide dismutase

A) catalase

If cells are grown in media containing amino acids labeled with radioactive nitrogen (15N), most of radioactivity will be found in the cells'

A) DNA.

B) proteins.

C) phospholipids.

D) DNA and proteins.

E) DNA and phospholipids.

D) DNA and proteins.

Which of the following elements is NOT correctly matched with its cellular function?

A) nitrogen — needed for amino acid synthesis

B) phosphorus — incorporated into nucleic acids

C) sulfur — used for synthesis of thiamin and biotin

D) magnesium and potassium — required as cofactors for enzymes

E) phosphorus - used for production of carbohydrates

E) phosphorus - used for production of carbohydrates

The biosafety level (BSL) for a clinical microbiology laboratory working with potentially airborne pathogens, such as tuberculosis bacteria, is

A) BSL-1.

B) BSL-2.

C) BSL-3.

D) BSL-4.

C) BSL-3.

Which of the following pairs of microbe classification terms and optimal growth temperatures is mismatched

A) psychrotroph — growth at 0°C

B) thermophile — growth at 37°C

C) mesophile — growth at 25°C

D) psychrophile — growth at 15°C

E) hyperthermophiles — growth at 85°C

B) thermophile — growth at 37°C

The data in Table 6.2 indicate that S. aureus is a(n)

A) Mesophile.

B) Facultative anaerobe.

C) Facultative halophile.

D) Aerobe.

E) Halophile

C) Facultative halophile.

Consider a culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus colonies can grow due to an elevated NaCl level. A yellow halo surrounds the growth, indicating the bacterium fermented a sugar in the medium, decreasing the pH as a result and changing the color of a pH indicator chemical. This type of medium would be referred to as a(n)

a. selective and differential medium

b. enrichment culture

c. differential and enrichment culture

d. chemically defined medium

e. differential medium

a. selective and differential medium

`A sample of milk is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A one-milliliter sample of the milk is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series.

One milliliter of the third dilution tube is plated in a pour plate.

After incubation, the plate has 54 colonies, indicating that the original milk sample contained:

A) 54 cells.

B) 540 cells.

C) 5400 cells.

D) 54,000 cells.

E) 540,000 cells.

Answer: 54,000 cells.

D) 54,000 cells.

Which of the following is an advantage of the standard plate count?

A) Can readily count cells that form motile

B) Requires no incubation time

D) Chemical and physical requirements are determined by media and incubation.

E) Cannot be used to count bacteria in food

B) Requires no incubation time

Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating:

A) Depletion of nutrients.

B) Hypotonic environment.

C) Lower osmotic pressure.

D) Hypertonic environment.

E) Lower pH.

D) Hypertonic environment.

Yeast can produce ATP through either fermentation on aerobic cellular respiration thus they are:

a. strict aerobes

b.strict anaerobes

c. facultative aerobes

d. faculative anaerobe

d. faculative anaerobe

The ________ method is used to indirectly measure microbial growth at filamentous bacteria and molds

a. turbidity measurement

b. metabolic activity

c. dry weight

d. spread plate

e. pour plate

c. dry weight

this organism uses glucose for carbon and energy

a. chemoautotrophs

b. chemoheterotroph

c. photoautotroph

d.photoheterotroph

b. chemoheterotroph

Thiobacillus bacteria use the Calvin-Benson cycle to reduce CO2 and the oxidation of sulfide ions for energy.

a. chemoautotrophs

b. chemoheterotroph

c. photoautotroph

d.photoheterotroph

a. chemoautotrophs

this organism has bacteriochlorophyllis and uses alchohols for carbon

a. chemoautotrophs

b. chemoheterotroph

c. photoautotroph

d.photoheterotroph

d.photoheterotroph

Cyanobacteria can fix CO2 using the reducing power and energy obtained from light. These bacteria are

a. chemoautotrophs

b. chemoheterotroph

c. photoautotroph

d.photoheterotroph

c. photoautotroph

New cells are being produced at the same rate as other cells are dying

a. death phase

b. stationary phase

c. log phase

d. lag phase

b. stationary phase

Cells are dying faster than new cells are being produced

a. death phase

b. stationary phase

c. log phase

d. lag phase

a. death phase

Cells are metabolically active but not dividing

a. death phase

b. stationary phase

c. log phase

d. lag phase

d. lag phase

the preferred phase for industrial application

a. death phase

b. stationary phase

c. log phase

d. lag phase

c. log phase

Cells are rapidly growing and dividing

a. death phase

b. stationary phase

c. log phase

d. lag phase

c. log phase

Cells are more susceptible to antimicrobial drugs in this phase

a. death phase

b. stationary phase

c. log phase

d. lag phase

c. log phase

Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization?

A) pasteurization

B) ethylene oxide

C) supercritical fluids

D) dry heat

E) autoclave

A) pasteurization

Which one of the following is most resistant to chemical biocides?

A) gram-positive bacteria

B) mycobacteria

C) gram-negative bacteria and mycobacteria

D) protozoan cysts

E) viruses with lipid envelopes

C) gram-negative bacteria and mycobacteria

which of the following items would most properly be subjected to sanitization?

a. skin

b. restaurant utensils

c. milk

d. surgical instruments

b. restaurant utensils

Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?

A) bacteriostatic — kills vegetative bacterial cells

B) germicide - kills microbes

C) virucide - inactivates viruses

D) fungicide — kills yeasts and molds

E) sterilant — destroys all living microorganisms

A) bacteriostatic — kills vegetative bacterial cells

Which concentration of ethanol is the most effective bactericide?

A) 100 percent

B) 70 percent

C) 50 percent

D) 40 percent

E) 30 percent

B) 70 percent

An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most accurately be called a(n)

A) virucide.

B) antiseptic.

C) disinfectant.

D) aseptic.

E) fungicide

C) disinfectant.

Which of the following describes flash pasteurization?

a. heating at 134 for one second

b. passing liquid through steam at 140

c. heating at 72 C for 15 seconds

d. heating at 72 for 15 seconds

e. heating at 63 for 30 minutes

c. heating at 72 C for 15 seconds

Lysol is and example of which of the following groups of chemical antimicrobial agents?

a. surfactants

b. alcohols

c. halogens

d. aldehydes

e. phenolics

e. phenolics

Which of the following is used to sterilize items that should not, or cannot, be exposed to heat or water?

a. triclosan

b. ethylene oxide

c. calcium hypochlorite

d. formaldehyde

e. hydrogen peroxide

b. ethylene oxide

Iodophors differ from iodine (I2) in that iodophors

A) Don't stain.

B) Are less irritating.

C) Are longer lasting.

D) Are combined with a nonionic detergent.

E) All of the above.

E) All of the above.

The dairy creamer used in restaurants is usually sterilized by

A) filtration.

B) ionizing radiation.

C) lyophilization.

D) UHT sterilization.

E) autoclaving.

D) UHT sterilization.

Which of the following is the best method to sterilize heat-labile solutions?

A) pasteurization

B) membrane filtration

C) freezing

D) autoclave

E) dry heat

B) membrane filtration