CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-002 Practice Questions 2

Bob is accessing a self-service portal in the cloud to instantly create additional servers, storage, and database instances for his firms DevOps group. Which of the options offered best describes this operation?

A.Bursting

B.Pay-as-you-grow

C.Multitenancy

D.On-demand

D. On-demand cloud computing allows the consumer to dynamically add and change resources with the use of an online portal.

Jillian is working on a project to interconnect her company's private data center to a cloud company that offers e-mail services and another that can provide burstable compute capacity. What type of cloud delivery model is she creating?

A.Public

B.Hybrid

C.Community

D.Private

B. The interconnection of multiple cloud models is referred to as a hybrid cloud.

Carl is learning about how cloud service providers allocate physical resources into a group. These resources are then dynamically associated with cloud services as demand requires. What virtualization technology is this?

A.On-demand virtualization

B.Dynamic scaling

C.Resource pooling

D.Elasticity

C. Resource pooling is the allocation of compute resources into a group, or pool, and then these pools are made available to a multitenant cloud environment.

Liza is a new Cloud+ architect for BigCo Inc. She is investigating cloud services that provide server hardware, but the operating system is not included. What cloud service is she using?

A.IaaS

B.PaaS

C.SaaS

D.CaaS

A. Infrastructure as a Service offers computing hardware, storage, and networking but not the operating systems or applications.

Harold is investigating his options to migrate his company's time and attendance application to the cloud. He only wants to be responsible for the application and would prefer that the public cloud company manage all underlying infrastructure and servers that are required to support his application. Harold calls you and asks for assistance in selecting a cloud service model that would meet his requirements. What would you suggest he implement?

A.IaaS

B.PaaS

C.SaaS

D.CaaS

B. Platform as a Service offers computing hardware, storage, networking, and the operating systems but not the applications.

Jane is a Cloud+ architect working on a physical-to-virtual migration to the public cloud. She has matched VM performance levels to her established baselines. She knows that her organization may need to adjust hardware resources in the future. What cloud characteristics can she use to match cloud capacity with future growth? (Choose three.)

A.Elasticity

B.On-demand computing

C.Availability zones

D.Resiliency virtualization

E.Pay-as-you grow

F.Resource pooling

A, B, E. Elasticity, on-demand computing, and pay-as-you-grow are all examples of being able to expand cloud compute resources as your needs require.

Peter is creating a change management document to redeploy applications for a private to public cloud for his employer. When moving to the public cloud, what technologies can he take advantage of to enable cloud operations? (Choose two.)

A.Load balancing

B.Automation

C.Auto-scaling groups

D.Virtualization

B, D. One of the prime advantages of cloud-based computing and the automation and virtualization it offers in the background is the ability to leverage the rapid provisioning of virtual resources to allow for on-demand computing.

Dawn is investigating the various cloud service models; she is interested in selecting a community cloud provider that offers a specialized financial reporting application. You are brought in to assist. What type of cloud model would you recommend Dawn investigate to meet her requirements?

A.IaaS

B.PaaS

C.SaaS

D.CaaS

C. Software as a Service offers cloud-managed applications as well as the underlying platform and infrastructure support.

Carol is a cloud customer that your consulting company is assisting with their migration. She is asking you about the demarcation point of operations for her public PaaS service. What model defines what you are responsible for and the responsibility of the provider?

A.Availability zones

B.Community

C.Shared responsibility

D.Baselines

C. The shared responsibility model outlines what services and portions of the cloud operations the cloud consumer and provider are responsible for.

Jonathan is architecting his client's global public cloud presence for an upcoming e-commerce deployment. You have been brought on to help design the network; he asks about providing local connections in Singapore and Malaysia. What would you suggest he investigate?

A.Regions

B.Auto-scaling groups

C.Availability zones

D.Global DNS affinity

A. Cloud operators segment their operations into regions for customer proximity, regulatory compliance, resiliency, and survivability.

Zale is working on a collaborative project that requires the implementation of a large-scale NoSQL database that will access three petabytes of historical data. He needs durable block storage in remote flash arrays. You have been tasked to design the storage connectivity from the database to the stored data. What type of network connection would you recommend for NoSQL read/write access to the arrays?

A.Block access

B.Zoning

C.VMFS

D.SAN

D. A storage area network (SAN) is a high-speed network dedicated to storage transfers across a shared network. Block access is not a networking technology. Zoning is for restricting LUNs in a SAN, and VMFS is a VMware filesystem.

Physical resources are virtualized and presented as resources to virtual machines running on hypervisors. What common resources does the hypervisor consume? (Choose three.)

A.Bare-metal cores

B.Virtual RAM

C.SaaS

D.Virtual CPUs

E.RAID

F.Virtual Storage

B, C, E. A hypervisor will virtualize RAM, compute, and storage; the VMs operating on the hypervisor will access these pools.

As a new Cloud+ professional you have been hired by a company that operates its own data centre; however, the company is calling it a cloud. What delivery model are you working with?

A.Hybrid

B.Public

C.Private

D.Community

C. A private cloud is used exclusively by a single organization.

Tim just logged into his cloud management dashboard to check the health monitors of his server fleet. What is the process he completed at login?

A.Authorization

B.Accounting

C.Authentication

D.Federation

E.Identity access

C. Authentication is the term used to describe the process of determining the identity of a user or device.

Martha is studying SAN technologies that use the Fibre Channel protocol and is asking about disk configuration in the remote storage array. She asks you which type of storage she can use on her Linux servers. What storage type can she deploy? (Choose the best answer.)

A.Meta

B.Object

C.Block

D.File

C. Storage area networks support block-based storage.

Patesh is becoming familiar with the interfaces available for his operations team to use to access his hybrid cloud deployment. You have been asked to explain the common types of user-based interfaces available to manage cloud objects. What are the common interfaces you would explain to Patesh? (Choose three.)

A.Web console

B.SNMP

C.API

D.PaaS

E.CLI

A, C, E. Application programmable interfaces, command-line interfaces, and GUI-based interfaces are all commonly used tools to migrate, monitor, manage, and troubleshoot cloud-based resources.

Sabil works for a company that offers cloud services to the railroad industry. All railroads have a similar set of requirements and access the same applications. BigWest Rail has contacted you about becoming a customer and is asking what applications are shared with other rail operators; they also ask what type of cloud model your company offers. What type of cloud is this?

A.Hybrid

B.Public

C.Private

D.Community

D. A community cloud is used by companies with similar needs such as railroad companies.

Kevin is exploring a durable block storage option that offers high utilization rates. It also needs to support striping that allows a parity bit to be used to reconstruct a volume if a single magnetic disk fails in his array. Which storage type stripes file data and performs a parity check of data over multiple disks that can recover from a single hard disk failure?

A.RAID 0

B.RAID 1

C.RAID 3

D.RAID 5

D. RAID 5 uses parity information that is striped across multiple drives that allows the drive array to be rebuilt if a single drive in the array fails. The other options do not have parity data.

You are involved in a large-scale migration project that requires moving a Windows OS running on a dual-slot, eight-core server with no hypervisor in a data centre to a VMware-based server in the public cloud. What type of migration is this?

A.vMotion

B.P2V

C.Private to public

D.V2V

E.Synchronous replication

B. When migrating a server that is running on bare metal to a hypervisor-based system, you would be performing a physical-to-virtual migration.

You have been asked by a new customer what type of authentication systems require something you have and also something you know. What type of authentication technology would you recommend?

A.Single sign-on

B.Confederations

C.Active Directory/LDAP

D.Multifactor

D. Multifactor authentication systems use a token generator as something that you have and a PIN/password as something you know.

Beatriz stops at her bank's ATM on her way home from work. She inserts her card into the ATM and then enters her PIN on the keypad. What type of authentication is she using?

A.SSO

B.Two-factor

C.LDAP

D.User-based

B. Two-factor authentication includes something that you have and something that you know.

Roman is the cloud administrator for a company that stores object-based data in a hybrid cloud. Because of the sensitivity of the data and various regulatory restrictions on allowing users access to sensitive security data, what type of access control would meet his security policies?

A.Mandatory access control

B.Nondiscretionary

C.Roles

D.Multifactor

A. The mandatory access control approach is implemented in high-security environments where access to sensitive data needs to be highly controlled. Using the mandatory access control approach, a user will authenticate, or log into, a system. Based on the user's identity and security levels of the individual, access rights will be determined by comparing that data against the security properties of the system being accessed.

William is implementing an access control rollout for a cluster of Windows SQL database servers in a hybrid cloud environment. He has defined the required tasks and then puts users, groups, and servers into this task-based implementation. What type of access control should William deploy?

A.Mandatory access control

B.Nondiscretionary

C.Roles

D.Multifactor

C. The question outlines the function of a role-based access control approach.

Quentin is a defence contractor investigating server compliance requirements needed to be certified to meet the U.S. Department of Defense security requirements for contractors. What requirement would you recommend he focus on?

A.FedRAMP

B.DIACAP

C.FISMA

D.Section 405.13 for DoD rule A286

B. The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is the process for computer systems' IT security. DIACAP compliance is required to be certified to meet the U.S. Department of Defense security requirements for contractors.

Leanna wants to deploy a public cloud service that allows her to retain responsibility only for her applications and require the cloud provider to maintain the underlying operating system and virtualized hardware. Which service model would you recommend she implement?

A.IaaS

B.PaaS

C.SaaS

D.CaaS

B. The Platform as a Service model offers operating system maintenance to be provided by the service provider.

Robert is configuring a new cloud interconnect to access his locally hosted Active Directory services. He wants to prevent his user base from having fragmented rights and no unified authorization services. You are brought in as a service consultant to assist in optimizing and controlling user access by implementing a technology that will give access to all allowed systems at the time of user authentication. He is implementing the LDAP protocol to enable this service. What type of system are you deploying?

A.Token-based 2FA

B.SSO

C.RSA

D.Nondiscretionary

B. Single sign-on allows a user to log in one time and be granted access to multiple systems without having to authenticate to each one individually.

Cathy is preparing her company's migration plan from a private to a hybrid cloud. She wants to outline firewall and DDoS requirements. What document should she create?

A.DIACAP

B.Security policy

C.Service level agreement

D.SOC-2

B. The security policy outlines all aspects of your cloud security posture.

Perry is investigating options for interconnecting a private cloud to a new public cloud region that supports analysis of customer-streamed IoT data. She is planning on implementing a tunnel across the Internet to interconnect the two locations to avoid the high costs of a dedicated interconnection. What transport protocol would you suggest that can offer a secure connection across the unsecure Internet?

A.AES

B.SOC-3

C.IPSec

D.RC5

B. The security policy outlines all aspects of your cloud security posture.

Jarleen is a consultant tasked with migrating Heath Med Records Inc. customer records to a cloud-based service offering a long-term archival system. Which U.S. compliance mandate must her company align with?

A.SOC 3

B.HIPAA

C.MPAA

D.ISA 2701

B. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act defines the standards for protecting medical data.

Fluentes is a security consultant for a day trading company that must implement strong encryption of data at rest for their cloud storage tiers. What is the best option that meets most security regulations for the encryption of stored data?

A.3DES

B.RSA

C.AES-256

D.Rivest Cipher 5

C. Advanced Encryption Standard is a symmetrical block cypher that has options to use three lengths, including 128, 192, and 256 bits. AES 256 is a very secure standard, and it would take an extremely long time and a lot of processing power to even come close to breaking the code.

Randy is developing a new application that will be deployed in an IaaS-based public cloud. He builds a test image and deploys a test VM in his private cloud's development zone. When he restarts one of the Linux-based servers, he notices that his storage volume data is missing. What type of storage did he implement? (Choose all that apply.)

A.Durable

B.RAID

C.Ephemeral

D.Nondurable

E.Block

F.Object

C, D. Temporary storage volumes that are only in existence when the VM is deployed are referred to as ephemeral or nondurable storage.

Matts has finished running some security automation scripts on three newly deployed Linux servers. After applying intrusion detection, virus, and malware protection on the Linux images, he notices an increase in which VM metric on his server management dashboard?

A.DMA

B.BIOS

C.CPU

D.IPsec

E.I/O

C. Applying security applications on a virtual server will cause an increase in CPU usage.

Jillian works in the operations centre and is tasked with monitoring security operations. What cloud-based GUI can she use for a real-time overview of security operations?

A.Puppet automation

B.Gemalto system

C.Dashboard

D.Vendor-based security appliance

C. A dashboard is a graphical portal that provides updates and an overview of operations.

Larken is reviewing the SLA and statement of responsibility with their community cloud provider PaaS. Who does the responsibility for stored data integrity in the cloud belong to?

A.Cloud provider

B.Compliance agency

C.Cloud customer

D.Shared responsibility

C. Ultimately the responsibility for data in the cloud belongs to the organization that owns the data.

Mindy has been tasked to develop a new QA test logging application but is concerned that the application must pull data from many different cloud locations and devices. What is a good interface for her to use to meet her requirements?

A.Python

B.XML

C.API

D.SNMP

E.TLS

C. An application programming interface (API) offers programmatic access, control, and configuration of a device between different and discrete software components.

What technology was instrumental in the growth of cloud services?

A.XML

B.Python

C.Automation

D.Authentication

E.Scripting

F.Workflow services

G.Encryption

C. Automation of cloud deployments was instrumental in the growth of cloud-based services.

Vicky is investigating multiple hacking attempts on her cloud-based e-commerce web servers. She wants to add a front-end security system that can actively deploy countermeasures that shuts down the hacking attempts. What application would you suggest that Vicky deploy?

A.DMZ

B.IDS

C.IPS

D.RAID

E.HIDS

C. Intrusion prevention systems will monitor for malicious activity and actively take countermeasures to eliminate or reduce the effects of the intrusion.

What options can you offer your user base for MFA tokens? (Choose two.)

A.Python app

B.Smartphone app

C.Automation systems

D.Key fob

E.Cloud vendor management dashboard

B, D. One-time numerical tokens are generated on key fob hardware devices or smartphone soft-token applications.

Linda works in the IT security group of her firm and has been tasked to investigate options that will allow customers to securely access their personal records stored on the cloud deployment accessed via tablets. What is the most common in-flight e-commerce security posture on the market?

A.MD5

B.SSL/TLS

C.IPsec

D.VPN

B. SSL/TLS security is the most common remote access encryption technology and is commonly used in browsers and smartphone applications. MD5 is a hash algorithm, and IPsec is a security framework; they do not apply to the question. VPNs are not as common as SSL/TLS for the scenario given.

Your company has purchased a specialized intrusion prevention system that is virtualized and designed for cloud-based network micro-segmentation deployments. When reading the documentation, Siri notices a link to download a Java-based application to monitor and configure the IPS application. What kind of automation system is this?

A.CLI

B.GIU

C.Vendor-based

D.API

E.RESTful

C. Based on the information given, the description is for a vendor-based management application.

Name the type of software update that is designed to address a known bug and to bring a system up-to-date with previously released fixes?

A.Hotfix

B.Patch

C.Version update

D.Rollout

B. A patch is a piece of software that is intended to update an application, operating system, or any other software-based system to fix or improve its operations.

Your employer has developed a mission-critical application for the medical industry, and there can be no downtime during maintenance. You have designed a web architecture to take this into account and that allows you to have an exact copy of your production fleet that can be brought online to replace your existing deployment for patching and maintenance. What type of model did you implement?

A.Cluster

B.DevOps

C.Blue-green

D.Rolling

C. Blue-green is a software deployment methodology that uses two configurations for production that are identical to each other. These deployments can alternate between each other, with one being active and the other being inactive.

Jill is performing a Tuesday night backup of a Tier 2 storage volume that she has already completed a full backup of on Sunday night. She only wants to back up files based on changes of the source data since the last backup. What type of backup is she performing?

A.Full

B.Differential

C.Incremental

D.Online

C. Incremental backups are operations based on changes of the source data since the last incremental backup was performed.

What virtual machine backup method creates a file-based image of the current state of a VM including the complete operating system and all applications that are stored on it?

A.Full backup

B.Snapshot

C.Clone

D.Replicate

B. A snapshot is a file-based image of the current state of a VM including the complete operating systems and all applications that are stored on them. The snapshot will record the data on the disk, its current state, and the VM's configuration at that instant in time.

Ronald is a Cloud+ student studying systems that abstract and hide much of the complexity of modern cloud systems. What is he learning about?

A.Runbooks

B.Workflow

C.Orchestration

D.REST/API

C. Orchestration systems enable large-scale cloud deployments by automating operations.

Cloud services depend on highly automated operations. What are common automation systems that are used for patch management? (Choose three.)

A.Chef

B.Cloud-patch

C.Ansible

D.DevOps

E.Puppet

F.Cloud Deploy

A, C, E. Common patch management offerings are Chef, Puppet, and Ansible.

Marlene is updating her horizontally scaled Internet-facing web servers to remediate a critical bug. Her manager has agreed to operate under reduced computing capacity during the process but stipulates that there can be no downtime during the process. What upgrade approach should Marlene perform to meet these requirements?

A.Orchestration

B.Rolling

C.Hotfix

D.Blue-green

B. A rolling configuration will sequentially upgrade the web servers without causing a complete outage and would meet the requirements outlined in the question.

What VM backup method can be used to create a master image to be used as a template to create additional systems?

A.Full backup

B.Snapshot

C.Clone

D.Replicate

C. Cloning takes the master image and clones it to be used as another separate and independent VM. Important components of a server are changed to prevent address conflicts; these include the UUID and MAC addresses of the cloned server.

A new application patch is being validated prior to release to the public. The developers have a release candidate, and the DevOps manager is requesting a report that shows the pass/fail data to verify that the fix does, in fact, resolve the problem. What process is he verifying?

A.Rollout

B.Orchestration

C.Automation

D.QA

D. The manager is requesting data on the results of the quality assurance testing on the release.

Jane has found a table merge issue in her SQL database hosted in a private cloud. While reviewing the log files, the vendor requested she install a software change that is designed for rapid deployment that corrects a specific and critical issue. What are they referring to?

A.Hotfix

B.Patch

C.Version update

D.Rollout

A. A hotfix is a software update type that is intended to fix an immediate and specific problem.

To meet regulatory requirements, a medical records company is required to store customer transaction records for seven years. The records will most likely never be accessed after the second year and can be stored offline to reduce expenses. What type of storage should they implement to achieve her goal?

A.File transfer

B.Archive

C.Replication

D.Data store

B. Inactive data moved to a separate storage facility for long-term storage is referred to as archiving.

Mark is creating a disaster recovery plan based on directives from his company's executive management team. His company's business is an e-commerce website that sells children's apparel with 85 percent of its revenue received during the holiday season. If there was a severe disruption in operations, the loss of business could put the company's ability to continue as a financially viable operation in peril. Mark is creating a plan that will restore operations in the shortest amount of time possible if there was an outage. What DR model is he implementing?

A.Hot site

B.Active/active

C.Warm site

D.Active/passive

E.Cold site

F.Rollover

A. The hot site model is the most viable option given the requirements. A hot site is a fully functional backup site that can assume operations immediately should the primary location fail or go offline.

Ahmed is a cloud+ professional researching data replication options for his MySQL database. For redundancy reasons, he decided to create a backup replica in a different availability zone that could become master should the primary zone go offline. For performance reasons, he has decided to update the replica in near real time after the initial write operation on the primary database. What type of solution is this?

A.Synchronous

B.Asynchronous

C.Volume sync

D.Remote mirroring

E.RAID 5

B. Asynchronous replication is when data is written to the primary first, and then later a copy is written to the remote site on a scheduled arrangement or in near real time.

Pierre is deploying a solution that allows data for his e-commerce operations hosted in a public cloud to be reached at remote locations worldwide with local points of presence. He wants to reduce the load on his web servers and reduce the network latency of geographically distant customers. What are these facilities called?

A.Region

B.Edge location

C.Availability zone

D.Replication

B. Edge locations are not complete cloud data centers. There are cloud connection points located in major cities and offer local caching of data for reduced response times.

Melinda is updating her firm's disaster recovery plans, and after receiving direction for his company's board of directors, she has been instructed to create a plan that restores operations within 48 hours of a disaster. What part of the plan should she update with the new requirements?

A.RSO

B.RPO

C.RTO

D.DBO

C. The recovery time objective is the amount of time a system can be offline during a disaster; it is the amount of time it takes to get a service online and available after a failure.

Jillian is a Cloud+ consultant for an auto parts company based in central Michigan. She is putting together a disaster recovery plan that includes a remote backup site that has a SQL server instance running at that location with asynchronously refreshed data replica. Her plan calls for activating all other services in the event of a hurricane causing an outage at her primary data centre. What model is Jillian going to deploy to meet the requirements?

A.Hot site

B.Warm site

C.Cold site

D.Active/passive

B. A warm site approach to recovering from a primary data center outage is when the remote backup of the site is offline except for critical data storage, which is usually a database.

Pete has been busy updating the disaster recovery procedures for his client's business continuity plan. The DR facility will need to be ready with floor space, power, and cooling and have loading docks to unload server and equipment racks to restore service. What type of DR implementation is Pete planning on deploying?

A.Hot site

B.Active/active

C.Warm site

D.Active/passive

E.Cold site

F.Rollover

E. A cold site is a backup data center provisioned to take over operations in the event of a primary data center failure, but the servers and infrastructure are not deployed or operational until needed.

Connie has been directed by her employer's finance department that they cannot afford to lose any more than 30 minutes of data in the case of a database failure or other catastrophic event. Connie has updated her corporate business continuity and disaster recovery plans. What metric did she change?

A.RSO

B.RPO

C.RTO

D.DBO

B. The restore point objective is the point in time that data can be recovered.

Will is testing his backup DR site and using his DNS configuration to load balance the primary and backup sites. He wants to verify that the database in the DR facility is updated in real time and remains current with the production replica in the primary data centre. What type of updates should he define in his primary data centre servers prior to enabling the DNS load balancing?

A.Synchronous replication

B.Asynchronous replication

C.Volume sync

D.Mirroring

E.RAID 5

A. Synchronous replication offerings write data to both the primary storage system and the replica simultaneously to ensure that the remote data is current with local replicas.

Leonard is creating disaster recovery documents for his company's online operations. He is documenting metrics for a measurable SLA that outlines when you can expect operations to be back online and how much data loss can be tolerated when recovering from an outage. Which metrics is he documenting? (Choose all that apply.)

A.RSO

B.RTO

C.RPO

D.DR

E.VxRestore

B, C. The restore point and restore time objectives are the measurements for the amount of data lost and the time needed to get back online after an outage.

The ability to dynamically add additional resources on demand such as storage, CPUs, memory, and even servers is referred to as what?

A.Bursting

B.Pooling

C.Elasticity

E.Orchestration

C. Cloud automation systems offer the ability to dynamically add and remove resources as needed; this is referred to as elasticity.

Margo is reviewing the maintenance responsibilities between her company and its public cloud service provider. She notices that the cloud provider takes responsibility for the operating system, and her company assumes responsibility for all applications and services running on the operating system. What type of service model is she operating under?

A.IaaS

B.PaaS

C.SaaS

D.XaaS

B. With the PaaS model, the cloud provider will maintain the operating system and all supporting infrastructure.

Akari is developing a cross-cloud provider migration plan as part of her company's business continuity plan. As she assesses the feasibility of migrating applications from one public cloud provider to another, what does she find is the service model that has the most lock-ins and is the most complex to migrate?

A.IaaS

B.PaaS

C.SaaS

D.XaaS

C. The higher up the services stack you go, from IaaS to PaaS to SaaS, the more difficult it will be to migrate. With IaaS, most of the cloud operations are under your direct control, which gives you the most flexibility to migrate. However, if the cloud provider controls the application, you may not have many migration options.

Joe is in the planning stages to make sure that an upcoming company promotion during a major sporting event will not overwhelm his company's cloud-based e-commerce site. He needs to determine his options to add capacity to the web server farm so it can process the anticipated additional workload. You are brought in to consult with him on his options. What do you recommend as possible solutions? (Choose three.)

A.Vertical scaling

B.Horizontal scaling

C.Edge cache

D.Cloud bursting

E.Core elasticity

A, B, D. Cloud computing operates with a utility business model that charges you only for the resources you consume. This model enables you to scale your cloud fleet to meet its current workload and be able to add and remove capacity as needed. There are many options to use elasticity to scale cloud operations including vertical and horizontal scaling and bursting.

Janice manages the MySQL database backend that runs on a multi-CPU instance that has reached 100 percent utilization. The database can run on only a single server. What options does she have to support the requirements of this database?

A.Horizontal scaling

B.Vertical scaling

C.Pooling

D.Bursting

B. Scaling up, or vertical scaling, will add resources such as CPU instances or more RAM. When you scale up, you are increasing your compute, network, or storage capabilities.

A popular e-commerce site is hosting its public-facing front-end web server fleet in a public cloud. You have been tasked with determining what the normal day-to-day web hit count is so that capacity plans for the upcoming holiday selling season can be assessed. You want to track incoming web requests and graph them against delayed and missed connection counts. What type of data set are you producing?

A.Metric

B.Variance

C.Baseline

D.Smoothing

C. The establishment of average usage over time is the data that gets collected for a baseline report.

Eva is the network architect for her company's large cloud deployment; she has interconnected her private cloud to a community cloud in another province. She is investigating using the community cloud to supplement her private cloud workload during end-of-month processing. What operation is she going to perform?

A.Elasticity

B.Bursting

C.Vertical scaling

D.Auto-scaling

B. Cloud bursting allows for adding capacity from another cloud service during times when additional resources are needed.

A cloud customer web server dashboard shows that CPU utilization on a database server has been consistently at more than 80 per cent utilization. The baselines show that 57 percent utilization is normal. What is this called?

A.Deviation

B.Variance

C.Triggers

D.Baseline imbalance

B. The measurement of the difference between a current reading and the baseline value is referred to as the variance.

Harold will modify a NACL to modify remote access to a cloud-based HR application. He will be submitting a detailed plan that outlines all details of the planned change. What process is he following?

A.Cloud automation

B.Change advisory

C.Change management

D.Rollout

C. Change management includes recording the change, planning for the change, testing the documentation, getting approvals, evaluating and validating, writing instructions for backing out the change if needed, and doing post-change review if desired.

To increase TipoftheHat.com's security posture, Alice is reviewing user accounts that access the community cloud resources. Alice notices that the summer interns have left to go back to school, but their accounts are still active. She knows they will return over the winter break. What would you suggest Alice do with these accounts?

A.Do nothing

B.Delete the accounts

C.Disable the accounts

D.Change the resource access definitions

E.Modify the confederation settings

F.Change the access control

C. The ability to disable an account can be helpful in situations where the account will need to be reactivated at a future date and does not need to be deleted.

Object tracking can be helpful in identifying which of the following? (Choose three.)

A.Resiliency

B.Trends

C.Metrics

D.ACLs

E.Peak usage

F.Anomalies

B, E, F. Trends, usage, and deficiencies are all management report outputs that can be identified using object tracking.

Capacity and utilization reporting often contains data on which of the following objects? (Choose three.)

A.CPU

B.OS version

C.Volume tier

D.RAM

E.Network

A, D, E. CPU, RAM, and network utilization are all important objects to manage for capacity and utilization tracking. Storage volume tiers and OS versions do not apply to this scenario.

What does a cloud management system monitor to collect performance metrics?

A.Database

B.Server

C.Hypervisor

D.Objects

D. Objects are queried to gather metric data.

Object tracking should be aligned with which of the following?

A.VPC

B.SLA

C.RDP

D.JSON

B. Tracking object performance data should match with the guaranteed levels outlined in the service level agreement.

What is a visual representation of current cloud operations?

A.Operational matrix

B.Management console

C.Dashboard

C. A dashboard is a configurable graphical representation of current operational data.

Hana is monitoring performance metrics on a video server; she sees that the server is utilizing 100 per cent of the available network bandwidth. What action should she take that will most likely address the problem?

A.Implement 802.1Q tagging.

B.Install a second network adapter.

C.Update the network adapter firmware.

D.Install a network coprocessor ASIC.

B. If a server is using all of its network bandwidth, then the most logical solution is to increase the network adapters' bandwidth or add a second adapter and create a teaming configuration.

What type of scaling includes adding servers to a pool?

A.Horizontal

B.Round robin

C.Elasticity

D.Auto-scale

E.Vertical

A. Horizontal scaling is the process of adding servers to a pool for increased capacity. Round robin is a load-balancing metric and does not apply. Elasticity is the ability to add and remove resources, auto-scaling is the automated process of adding and removing capacity, and vertical scaling is expanding a server.

What type of scaling involves replacing an existing server with another that has more capabilities?

A.Horizontal

B.Round robin

C.Elasticity

D.Auto-scale

E.Vertical

E. Vertical scaling is the process of upgrading or replacing a server with one that has greater capabilities.

Ichika is preparing a change management plan to increase the processing abilities of one of her middleware servers. What components can she upgrade to increase server performance? (Choose three.)

A.CPU

B.SLA

C.RAM

D.Network I/O

E.ACL

F.DNS

A, C, D. Server performance can be increased by adding CPU processing, memory, and network capacity. SLA, ACL, and DNS are not related to increasing server capacity.

Niko is generating baseline reports for her quarterly review meeting. She is interested in a public cloud application server's memory utilization. Where does she generate these reports?

A.Hypervisor

B.Databases

C.Logging servers

D.Cloud management and monitoring application

D. Cloud reports are formatted collections of data contained in the management or monitoring applications.

SaaS orchestration systems are whose responsibility in the public cloud?

A.Customer

B.Provider

C.Automation vendor

D.DevOps

B. The cloud service provider owns its automation and orchestration systems, and they cannot be directly accessed by the customer.

What type of application commonly uses batch processing?

A.DNS

B.NTP

C.Databases

D.Middleware

C. It is common for batch processing to be performed on database applications.

Giulia posted a new software update to her company's popular smartphone application. After announcing the release, she has been monitoring her dashboard information and has noticed a large spike in activity. What cloud resource should she focus on?

A.CPU

B.Network bandwidth

C.RAM

D.API

E.Storage

B. A large number of users downloading a new application would cause an increase in network bandwidth usage.

Cloud capacity can be measured by comparing current usage to what?

A.Orchestration

B.Automation

C.NTP

D.Baseline

E.APIs

D. A baseline measurement is used as a reference to determine cloud capacity increases and decreases.

Emma is modifying a publicly accessible IP subnet on her company's e-commerce site hosted in a hybrid cloud. After performing address changes for all of his public-facing web servers, she validated the change by connecting from a bastion host located offshore. She was unable to connect to the web servers. What does she need to modify to allow the remote site to connect to the web server?

A.NTP

B.STP

C.DNS

D.API

C. The Domain Name System records need to be changed to reflect the new IP address mapped to the domain name.

Maria has noticed an increase in the response time of the NoSQL application she runs in her IaaS cloud deployment. When comparing current results against her baseline measurements that she recorded when the database was originally deployed, she verified that there has been a steady increase in the number of read requests. You have been asked to evaluate the baseline variances. Where should you focus your troubleshooting efforts?

A.Memory

B.CPU

C.Storage

D.Networking

C. Databases read and write requests utilize storage I/O and should be the focus for troubleshooting.

Derek is monitoring storage volume utilization and is preparing a company change request to add storage capacity. He has decided to automate the volume allocation size. What cloud feature can he take advantage of?

A.SaaS

B.API

C.Elasticity

D.OpenStack

C. Elasticity allows for cloud services to expand and contract based on actual usage and would be applicable to increasing storage capacity.

What application tracks a process from start to finish?

A.API

B.NTP

C.Workflow

D.Orchestration

C. Workflow applications track a process from start to finish and sequence the applications that are required to complete the process.

Common cloud resources in your deployment that may saturate over time include which of the following? (Choose three.)

A.RAM

B.Power

C.CPU

D.Storage

E.Monitoring

F.IaaS

A, C, D. Resources such as the amount of RAM needed, CPU cycles, and storage capacity are common systems that may become saturated as your cloud compute requirements grow.

Homer designed an application tier for his company's new e-commerce site. He decided on an IP subnet that uses the /28 IPv4 subnet. He is planning for a maximum of 14 servers. You are brought in as a cloud architect to validate his design. What other devices may be on this subnet other than the servers that would also require IP address assignments? (Choose three.)

A.SLA

B.Default gateway

C.DNS

D.NTP

E.API

F.SNMP

B, C, D. In addition to the web servers, IP addresses may be required for the NTP and DNS services and the default gateway.

Elena manages user accounts for her company's cloud presence. She has a trouble ticket open with Jill to assist her in accessing an SSD storage volume in the San Paulo region of the public cloud. What kind of user issue is she investigating?

A.Authentication

B.Authorization

C.Federation

D.SSO

B. The question is asking about being able to access a specific cloud service. This would concern Jill having authorization to access the storage volume. Authentication and SSO are login systems and not rights to services. A federation links user databases.

Emma is unable to reach her Linux-based web server hosted in the Singapore zone of the cloud. She is located in Austin, Texas. What utility can she use to verify the connection path?

A.traceroute

B.ipconfig

C.arp

D.netstat

E.ping

F.tcpdump

G.route print

A. The tracert and traceroute utilities are useful for network path troubleshooting. This utility shows the routed path a packet of data takes from source to destination. You can use it to determine whether routing is working as expected or whether there is a route failure in the path. The other options are all incorrect because they do not provide network path data.

After deploying a new public website, your validation steps ask you to check the domain name to IP address mappings. What utility can you use for validation? (Choose two.)

A.RDP

B.dig

C.SSH

D.nslookup

E.IPsec

F.IPS

B, D. The Windows command-line utility nslookup resolves domain names to IP addressing. The Linux equivalent is the dig utility. The other answers offered are not valid for the solution required in the question.

Nicola is deploying a new fleet of IIS web servers on her IaaS e-commerce site. The company has elected to use a hybrid approach and desires graphical connections to the Windows bastion hosts. What traffic must he permit through the external-facing firewall to the host?

A.SSH

B.RDP

C.DNS

D.IPS

B. The Windows Remote Desktop Protocol allows for remote connections to a Windows graphical user desktop.

Martina is troubleshooting a networking problem and needs to capture network frames being sent and received from the server's network adapter. What utility would she use to collect the traces?

A.dig

B.netstat

C.tcpdump

D.nslookup

C. The tcpdump utility allows a Linux system to capture live network traffic and is useful in monitoring and troubleshooting. Think of tcpdump as a command-line network analyzer. dig and nslookup show DNS resolution but do not display the actual packets going across the wire. netstat shows connection information and is not DNS related.

The remote disaster recovery location follows the warm site model. To configure the network switches, routers, and firewalls remotely, Joyce will need serial port access from her company's operations centre. She has 14 serial ports currently available but needs to be prepared for any unplanned expansion requirements during a disaster recover cutover. What device would you recommend she install at the warm site?

A.RDP

B.Telnet

C.IPsec

D.SSH

E.Terminal server

E. In a data center, terminal servers are deployed and have several serial ports, each cabled to a console port on a device that is being managed. This allows you to make an SSH or a Telnet connection to the terminal server and then use the serial interfaces to access the console ports on the devices you want to connect to. The other options given do not provide serial port connections.

The cloud data centre is in a large industrial park with no company signage, extensive video cameras in the parking lot, high-security fences, and biometrics at the guard shack. What type of security is the provider implementing?

A.Building

B.Device

C.Infrastructure

D.Tunneling

C. Infrastructure security is the hardening of the facility and includes the steps outlined in the question including nondescript facilities, video surveillance, and biometric access.

Mergie is documenting different methods that her remote operations centre can use to access the Perth fleet of servers operating in a community cloud. Which of the following are not viable methods? (Choose two.)

A.RDP

B.Telnet

C.IDSD/IPS

D.Terminal server

E.DNS

F.HTTP

C, E. Common remote access tools include RDP, SSH, and terminal servers. IDSs/IPSs are for intrusion detection, and DNS is for domain name to IP address mappings and is not a utility for remote access.

Vasile is working a support ticket that shows the connection between the Ames field office and the Kansas City cloud edge location has dropped. She confirms it is a secure Internet-based access solution. What type of connection is this?

A.Direct peering

B.IDS

C.VPN

D.AES-256

E.RDP

C. A secure Internet-based connection would be a VPN.

Company users are complaining that they cannot log in to a cloud-based collaboration system. The operations centre has been investigating and has, so far, verified that the MFA applications are operational. What user system are they troubleshooting?

A.Authentication

B.Authorization

C.Federation

D.Kerberos

A. Logging into systems is referred to as authentication. Also, the question references multifactor authentication (MFA) as part of the system.