NBDHE Mock Exam Review

What is myxedema?

Hypothyroidism in adults

According to the American Heart Association guideline, which of the following heart conditions does NOT require premedication?

A.) Incompletely repaired cyanotic congenital heart disease

B.) History of infective endocarditis

C.) Rheumatic heart disease

D.) Artificial heart valve

C.) Rheumatic heart disease

Which of the following is NOT correct regarding furcations?

A.) They can be detected on anterior teeth

B.) They can be detected on the posterior teeth

C.) They can be visible when recession is present

D.) They can present a challenge to the clinician during instrumentation

A.) They can be detected on anterior teeth

What description is related to the patient who had a spinal injury at C2 and C3 level?

Patient has limited head and neck movement and patient may depend on a ventilator for respiration

Injury at the C5 level

Will allow the patient to have shoulder control and perform daily tasks of eating.

Injury at the C7 level

Will allow the patient to have wrist and elbow movements as well.

Injury below the T (thoracic) level

Will allow the normal motor function of the upper body.

Which type of hypersensitivity has the MOST delayed response?

Type IV

The clinician changed the 8 inches PID to a 16 inches PID. How will the beam intensity change?

1/4 times stronger

To determine if the client has calculus deposits on the proximal surfaces of the posterior teeth, which instrument with which stroke should be used?

11/12 explorer, fluid stroke

T-test

compares the means (averages) of two different studies

ANOVA (analysis of varience)

compares the means of three or more studies

Chi-square test

measures the difference between the observed and expected values, not means

P-value

measures result that occurred by chance during an experiment

Incisors are used for,

Biting and cutting

How many bones are there in the middle ear?

3

They are the malleus, incus, and stapes.

How many cranial bones are there?

8

(occipital, 2 temporal, 2 parietal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and fronal bones)

How many facial bones are there?

14

(vomer, 2 conchae, 2 nasal, 2 macilla, mandible, 2 palatine, 2 zygomatic, and 2 lacrimal bones)

With amelogenesis imperfecta, the enamel may,

Have pitting

Appear yellow

Chip easily

Expose dentin

What is the normal Prothrombin time (PT)?

11-16 seconds

Which of the following is NOT a function of a mirror?

A.) Soft tissue retraction

B.) Indirect vision

C.) Direct illumination

D.) Transillumination

C.) Direct illumination

Blood pressure of 142/92 mmHg is categorized as,

Hypertension stage 1

Normal blood pressure

should be under 120/80 mmHg

Pre-hypertension

120-139/80-89 mmHg

Hypertension stage 1

140-159/90-99 mmHg

Hypertension stage 2

160-179/100-109 mmHg

Which symptom is related to Alzheimer's disease?

A.) Inability to recall recent events

B.) Resting tremors

C.) Unilateral weakness

D.) Bradykinesia

A.) Inability to recall recent events

Which anatomic feature of the maxillary molar is used to assess the occlusion in Angle's classification?

Mesiobuccal cusp

What is the side effect of the drug cyclosporine (Sandimmune)?

Gingival hyperplasia

Which vitamin is important for night vision?

Vitamin A

Which on of the following is NOT true regarding instrument sharpening techniques?

A.) The angle between the instrument face and the stone should be at 110 degrees.

B.) The original shape of the instrument should be preserved

C.) The internal angle of the cutting blade of a curette should be maintained at 70 degrees.

D.) Sharpen from toe to heel of the working end

D.) Sharpen from toe to heel of the working end

Which part of an atom is NOT responsible for its mass?

A.) Electrons

B.) Protons

C.) Neutrons

D.) Nucleus

A.) Electrons

Which antihypertensive agent is associated with gingival enlargement?

Nifedipine

Calcium channel blocker

ends with suffix - pine

Ex: Nifedipine

Beta blocker

ends with olol

Ex: Atenolol

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

ends with - pril

Ex: Enalpril

Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARB)

ends with - tan

Ex: Losartan

Vitamin D deficiency in adults can cause which condition?

Osteomalacia (softening of bones)

In children it is called rickets.

Glutaraldehyde is considered and intermediate-level disinfectant. Intermediate-level disinfedtants can inactive bacterial spores.

Both statements are false.

Glutaraldehydes are high-level disinfectants and can not kill bacterial spores.

Rem represents the measurement for dose equivalent in the Standard system. Rem is equivalent to which measurement in the SI system?

Sievert

Which of the following is NOT true about hand hygiene?

Gloves can be substituted for hand washing

Which type of sterilization method is used only in emergency conditions?

Flash cycle

Overconsumption of most nutrients can be detrimental to the body. However, overconsumption of vitamins is always beneficial.

The first statement is true; the second is false

Calculus removal is important in preventing and treating periodontal disease because,

Calculus is a local factor that facilitates the accumulation of plaque

Waterlines of the dental unit should be flushed in between patients for,

20-30 seconds

What is the purpose of beta blockers?

To decrease nerve impulses to the heart and blood vessels

Beta blockers decrease the nerve impulses to the heart and blood vessels. These medications end with the suffix -olol, as in atenolol (Tenormin).

The straight calibrated periodontal probe can be used for all of the following EXCEPT,

A.) Calculate width of the attached gingiva

B.) Detect calculus

C.) Measure depth of the pocket

D.) Measure intraoral lesions

E.) Detect caries

E.) Detect caries

When a patient is experiencing seizure in the dental chair, the clinician should assist the patient to be in a,

Supine position leaned on one side

The oral signs of diabetes include all of the following EXCEPT,

A.) Fast wound healing

B.) Periodontal disease

C.) Xerostomia

D.) Oral candidiasis

A.) Fast wound healing

The dentist with whom you work suddenly seems confused and cannot speak. You also notice that her handwriting has changed and she has difficulty using her hand writing hand. What medical emergency situation could this be related to?

Stroke

Gram-positive rods appear how many days after plaque accumulation?

After 2-4 days

Psycho-stimulant drugs such as Concerta, Ritalin, and Dexedrine are commonly used in the treatment of,

ADHD

Which one of the alternative sweeteners is a nutritive sweetener?

Xylitol

What is the amount of energy produced by 1 gram of protein?

4 kcal

Proteins and carbohydrates produce

4 kcal/g of energy

Fats produce

9 kcal/g of energy

Alcohol produce

7 kcal/g of energy

The impression material agar-agar is a,

Reversible hydrocolloid

When providing oral care to a patient who has Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, you should,

A.) Schedule short appointments

B.) Never leave the patient unattended in the room

C.) Use 'tell-show-do' approach

D.) All of the above

D.) All of the above

All of the following are true about modified pen grasp EXCEPT,

A.) Fingers form a soft C-shape

B.) Ring finger rests against the middle finger

C.) Pad of the middle finger rests on the instrument

D.) Thumb and middle finger are place opposite of each other on the handle

D.) Thumb and middle finger are placed opposite of each other on the handle

Which of the following is NOT related to cherubism?

A.) It may cause expansion of the mandible

B.) It may cause premature loss of primary teeth

C.) It is hereditary condition

D.) The bone forms radiopacities described as "cotton-wool"

D.) The bone forms radiopacities described as "cotton-wool"

Cotton-wool radiopacity is usually referring to the appearance of the bone in Paget disease, not cherubism.

If the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar is distal to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar, what type of occlusion will the patient have?

Class II

Which type of bacteria cannot survive without oxygen?

Aerobic

Which of the following is NOT correct regarding major aphthous ulcers?

A.) Lesions appear as tiny vesicles

B.) Lesions are usually painful

C.) Lesions may take several weeks to heal

D.) Lesions are commonly associated with immunosuppressive diseases

A.) Lesions appear as tiny vesicles

The time elapsed from the point of mixing a material until its initial setting is known as?

Working time

Which of the following is NOT correct about a right handed clinician that is when working on a patient in a supine position?

A.) Ask the patient to tilt the head up for maxillary teeth

B.) Ask the patient to tilt the head down for mandibular teeth

C.) The occlusal plane is perpendicular to floor

D.) 8-9 o'clock is best for anterior surfaces away from the clinician

D.) 8-9 o'clock is best for anterior surfaces away from the clinician

Which nutrient CANNOT be synthesized by the body?

Essential amino acids

Which of the following best describes the relationship between alginate and setting time?

Cooler water temperature increases setting time

Which of the following instruments is NOT a critical item?

A.) Curettes

B.) Surgical burs

C.) Scalpels

D.) Mouth mirrors

D.) Mouth mirrors

Which dental biomaterials is used to close the pits and fissures on tooth surfaces?

Sealant

Edentulous patients will lose their vertical facial dimension over time. Which of the following can explain the reason for this change?

Bone resorption occurs when teeth are not present

The patient presents with an area in the vestibule that is white and tissues that slough off. Upon talking to the patient, you realize that the patient had been suffering from a toothache and he used an aspirin tablet on the area to calm the pain. The patient is worried that he has cancer. What advise could the clinician give?

It is most likely a mucosal burn, therefore the abnormality should be watched for a few weeks as it will heal on its own.

Which of the following describes a negative correlation?

A.) The more the patient brushes his teeth, the lower the risk for caries

B.) The more the patient eats candies, the more the risk for caries

C.) The patients brushing time and caries risk are not related

A.) The more the patient brushes his teeth, the lower the risk for caries

Which type of white blood cells are more commonly found in acute inflammation?

A.) Neutrophils

B.) Macrophages

C.) Monocytes

D.) Mast cells

A.) Neutrophils

The sequence of eruption of the mandibular teeth in the primary dentition is,

Central incisor, lateral incisor, first molar, canine, second molar

In the fertilization stage of the preimplantation period, the sperm and ovum join to form,

Zygote

A white, painless, flat lesion is best described as,

Leukoplakia

Which one of the following point of spinal cord injury will allow the patient to use all upper extremities?

T-10

Diagnosis in a dental office can be compared to which process in community oral health planning?

Analysis

Which indices can help the patient understand the specific areas she needs to focus on with her care at home?

Plaque control record

Which bone forms the posterior part of the nasal septum?

Vomer

Probe depth is 3mm, recission is 4mm. What is the CAL?

7mm

The clinician noticed a cluster of radiolucencies that she called "soap bubble" on the panoramic radiograph of a new patient. Which of the following pathology could be included in the differential diagnosis?

A.) Odontoma

B.) Leukoplakia

C.) Osteosarcoma

D.) Ameloblastoma

D.) Ameloblastoma

Squamous cell carcinoma can be found in all of those areas EXEPT?

A.) Buccal mucosa

B.) Floor of the mouth

C.) Bone

D.) Lateral border of tongue

C.) Bone

What is the mode of transmission for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Airborne

If the family of a 5-year-old child uses well water with a 0.4ppm concentration of fluoride levels, what dosage of fluoride supplement should the clinician prescribe for the child?

0.25 mg

Which bacteria are mainly involved in caries formation?

Streptococcus mutans

When comparing primary and permanent molars, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A.) Primary molars have larger pulp chambers

B.) Primary molars have longer root trunks

C.) Primary molars have thicker enamel layers

D.) All of the above

A.) Primary molars have larger pulp chambers

What is the term for soreness of the tongue with inflammation and loss of doral papillae?

Glossitis

The Naber's probe passes through the furcation to the other side, but the furcation is not clinically visible, which type of furcation does this describe?

Class III

Which of the followings is NOT true regarding the geographic tongue?

A.) It is categorized by erythematous patches surrounded by yellow borders

B.) The affected area can have a rough texture

C.) Patches can disappear and reappear in different locations

D.) No treatment is necessary

B.) The affected area can have a rough texture

Ultrasonic scalers are best to remove amalgam overhangs. Ultrasonic scalers should be avoided with veneers.

Both statements are true.

Which of the following is a highly radiosensitive cell?

A.) immature cell

B.) Highly specialized cell

C.) Mature cell

D.) Slowly dividing cell

A.) Immature cell

The medical term used for chest pain or chest discomfort is,

Angina pectoris

What symptom is NOT related to excessive fluoride ingestion?

A.) Nausea

B.) Abdominal pain

C.) Diarrhea

D.) Fruity breath

D.) Fruity breath

Which structure protects the bacterial community and helps biofilm to grow?

Slime layer

Which of the following is absorbed into the bloodstream the fastest?

A.) Glucose

B.) Lactose

C.) Maltose

D.) Sucrose

A.) Glucose

Which one of the following is a negative reproduction?

A.) Impression

B.) Replica

C.) Stone model

A.) Impression

The gap between the adjacent Schwann cells is called the,

Node of Ranvier

Which one of the following components is added to dentifrices for its anti-sensitivity quality?

Potassium nitrate,

Stronium chloride