MCQ- PBL Case Verna Willaims

What are bitewing X-rays primary function?

a. To look for periapical abcess

b. Deciphering interproximal caries

c. Irradiate tumors in the gingiva

d. To look for gingival recession

e. To look for oral lesions

b. Deciphering interproximal caries

Flow of electrons in the X-ray tube is from...

a. Electrons do not flow in the X-ray tube

b. Cathode to anode

c. Anode to cathode

d. Cathode to cathode

e. Anode to anode

b. Cathode to anode

Low energy X-rays are...

a. Give a high quality radiograph

b. Ineffective in producing radiographs

c. Generated from the K shell of tungsten atom

d. Found in the infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum

b. Ineffective in producing radiographs

**Low energy x-rays are like radio waves and light waves. Higher energy ones are gamma and x-ray.

Which of the following isn't a periodontal ligament fiber?

a. trans-septal fiber

b. oblique fiber

c. lingual fiber

d. apical fiber

e. horizontal fiber

c. lingual fiber

A local anesthetic with the following pKa will enter the nerve axon the quickest...

a. 7.4

b. 7.8

c. 6.0

d. 6.5

e. 8.0

c. 6.0

*****The lower the pKa, the faster the anesthesia will set.

All of the following local anesthetics are currently used in dental offices except for:

a. Lidocaine (Brand name Xylocaine) Amino Amide group

b. Bupivicaine (Brand name Marcaine, Sensorcaine and Vivacaine) Amino Amide group

c. Mepivicaine (Brand name Carbocaine and Polocaine) Amide group

d. Articaine (Brand name Ultracain and Septocaine) Amide Group

e. Procaine

e. Procaine

****Many people are allergic to PABA (paraaminobenzoic acid) in procaine (Novocaine).

Tori:

a. are benign exotoses

b. usually occur bilaterally in the mandible

c. are a developmental defect

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

You can refuse treatment to a patient:

a. if they have HIV

b. due to their ethnic background

c. if they do not sign the consent form

d. if they do not have insurance

c. if they do not sign the consent form

All of the following refers to Nitrous Oxide EXCEPT:

a. anxiety relief

b. minimizes gag reflex

c. used to put the patient to sleep

d. is metabolized by the body quickly

All of the following refers to Nitrous Oxide EXCEPT:

a. anxiety relief

b. minimizes gag reflex

c. used to put the patient to sleep

d. is metabolized by the body quickly

The practice of dental hygiene includes the following:

a. Diagnosis

b. Removal of permanent restorations

c. Surgery

d. Prescribing medication

e. Prophylaxis

e. Prophylaxis

How many years after a patient's death should a dental office keep the patient's dental records?

a. 5

b. 7

c. 10

d. 15

e. until dentist retires

b. 7

What is proper disposal of patient's chart?

a. shredding

b. incinerated

c. trash disposal

d. public storage

e. on the ocean floor

a. shredding

What is the main patheogenesis of mandibular and maxillary tori?

a. genetics

b. environmental

c. mechanical stress

d. a+b

e. a+b+c

e. a+b+c

What is not examined in a I&E exam??

a. TMJ

b. lymph nodes

c. palpation of ears

d. gingival mucosa

e. tonsils

c. palpation of ears

What is a symptom of periodontitis but not gingivitis?

a. swelling of gingiva

b. swelling of tonsils

c. cold sores

d. alveolar bone atrophy

e. halitosis

d. alveolar bone atrophy

How many X-rays are typical of a new patient at the USC school of Dentistry?

a. 20 (16 PA, and 4 bitewings)

b. 22 (18 PA, and 4 bitewing)

c. 18 (14 PA, and 4 Bitewing)

d. 20 (14 PA and 6 Bitewing)

e. 22 (16 PA and 6 Bitewing)

a. 20 (16 PA, and 4 bitewings)

Which of the following is not a required new patient sheet for USC school of Dentistry?

a. Medical History

b. CORAH

c. Smoker Assessment

d. Privacy Practice

e. Treatment Consent Form

e. Treatment Consent Form

Which of the following is a legal reason to turn down a patient?

a. HIV

b. Active Tuberculosis

c. Alveolitis

d. Endocarditis

e. Cancer

b. Active Tuberculosis

What is not a symptom of Gingivitis?

a. Swollen Gums

b. Bleeding Gums

c. Inflamed Gums

d. Bone Resorption

e. Gum Discoloration

d. Bone Resorption

What details must be included in informed consent?

a. Risks of proposed treatment

b. Alternative Treatments

c. Risks of alternative treatments

d. Risk of no treatment

e. All of the above

e. All of the above

The periapical film is the film of choice in evaluating: a. root surfaces b. occlusal caries c. proximal caries d.

supporting bone e. the periodontal ligament space

a. a,b,e

b. a,c,d

c. a,d,e

d. b,d,e

e. all of the above

c. a,d,e

22. Cervical burnouts on a radiograph are defined as:

a. decreased x-ray absorption in the cervical area

b. interproximal caries

c. root surface caries

d. 2 and 3

e. none of the above

a. decreased x-ray absorption in the cervical area

***Cervical burnout is an illusion of radiolucency of a radiopaque object. It appears as a radiolucent area or band

between two extremely radiopaque areas.

Which of the following is an indicator of the quality of an x-ray beam?

a. milliamperage

b. exposure time

c. H and D curve

d. machine output

e. half-value layer

e. half-value layer

***The quality of the x-ray beam is controlled by the voltage while the milliamperes control the quantity. An increase in the

voltage and milliamperes reduces exposure time for the patient. The concept of half-value layer or HVL is used to quantify the

ability of an x-ray beam to penetrate the material being examined. The HVL of an x-ray beam is the amount or thickness

of absorbing material or filtration that must be placed in the beam to reduce the transmission of the beam by one half. The

material predominantly used to determine the HVL of diagnostic x-ray equipment is aluminum, and hence HVL is expressed in

terms of mm of aluminum. Medical diagnostic x-ray machines typically have HVLs ranging from 2.3 to 5 mm Al.

All of the following are examples of electromagnetic radiation EXCEPT:

a. x rays

b. beta rays

c. gamma rays

d. microwaves

e. radio waves

b. beta rays

***** No such thing as beta rays. EMR includes radio waves, microwaves, infrared radiation, visible light, ultraviolet radiation, X-

rays and gamma rays.

Which of the following causes an increase in radiographic density?

a. decreased mA

b. decreased kVp

c. decreased target-object distance

d. increased object-film distance

e. none of the above

c. decreased target-object distance

** A measure of the degree of film darkening. Decrease distance, increase kVP, increase mA.

The maximum permissible dose equivalent of radiation per week to an occupationally exposed person is:

a. .1 rem (.001 Sv)

b. .2 rem (.002 Sv)

c. .3 rem (.003 Sv)

d. .4 rem (.004 Sv)

e. .5 rem (.005 Sv)

a. .1 rem (.001 Sv)

**** 50mSV per year.

Which one of the following is not considered part of the initial interview of the new dental patient?

a. chief complaint

b. review of symptoms

c. treatment plan

d. drug allergy history

e. type of dental insurance

c. treatment plan

The essential components of informed consent are:

a. description of procedure

b. complications and adverse effects of procedure

c. other options to procedure

d. signature of patient, dentist and an observer third party

e. all of the above

e. all of the above

In the presence of gingival recession, the clinical attachment level is:

a. the pocket depth

b. the pocket depth + gingival recession from the CEJ

c. gingival recession from the CEJ

d. pocket depth - gingival recession from the CEJ

b. the pocket depth + gingival recession from the CEJ

*** Must probe pocket and measure from bottom of pocket to CEJ.

What channels do local anesthesia block?

a. calcium

b. potassium

c. sodium

d. chloride

c. sodium

For administration of nitrous oxide, what type of supervision is required for the dental hygienist to perform a procedure?

a. direct supervision

b. general supervision

c. both a and b

d. none of the above

a. direct supervision

Dental Materials Safety Sheets are required by:

a. California State Law

b. Federal State Law

c. Both a and b

d. Not legally required

a. California State Law

In order to refuse a new patient the following occurs:

a. Refusal to sign release form.

b. Is HIV Posititive?

c. Doesn't have dental insurance?

d. Is loud?

a. Refusal to sign release form.

One of the ways we need to help Verna Williams is to educate her about the value of proper oral health care.

The following are methods teach Ms. Williams:

a. Co-discovery process

b. Intra-oral cameras

c. Computer software

d. Digital Radiography

e. All of the above

e. All of the above

Gram-negative anaerobic bacteria are important in the development of periodontal disease. Which of the

following statement is correct?

a. Gram-negative anaerobic bacteria are new organisms that have displaced native species of the oral flora

b. Porphyromonas gingivalis is a keystone species capable of disrupting recognition of ligand mediated host immune response

c. Prevotella intermedia is found in initial periodontal disease and is responsible for the tissue degeneration

leading to attachment loss

d. Candida albicans is an initial gram-negative anaerobic bacteria that alters the microenvironment by

blocking host anti-inflammatory response

e. Lactobacillus secretes of basic solution into the sulcus prompting the growth of other gram-negative

anaerobic bacteria

b. Porphyromonas gingivalis is a keystone species capable of disrupting recognition of ligand mediated host immune response

It is important to schedule regular dental visits to in order to receive all three levels of preventive care. The

three levels are the following:

a. I - Prevention of onset of disease, II - Terminate disease process and restore damaged tissue, III -

Replace diseased or damaged tissue

b. I - Prevention of onset of disease, II - Replace host tissue and restore to normal condition, III -

Terminate the disease process without replacing tissue

c. I - Restore original structure and function, II - Replace lost tissues and rehabilitate patient, III - Execute

preventive measures to prevent future disease.

d. I - Restore original structure and function, II - Prevent future disease, III - Replace lost tissues as a last

resort

e. I - Replace lost tissues, II - Prevention of onset of disease, III - Restore damaged tissues

a. I - Prevention of onset of disease, II -Terminate disease process and restore damaged tissue, III -Replace diseased or damaged tissue

****1. Primary prevention uses strategies and agents to prevent the onset of disease, reverse the progress of disease, or arrest the disease process before secondary preventive treatment becomes necessary. This level is sometimes thought of as dental hygiene.

2. Secondary prevention uses routine treatment methods to terminate a disease process and/or restore tissues to as near normal as possible. This level can be termed restorative care.

3. Tertiary prevention uses measures necessary to replace lost tissues and rehabilitate patients to as near normal as possible. This level can be termed reconstructive care.

In Verna Williams' perio-apical radiograph of teeth number 6, the radiolucent space between teeth number 6

and 7 is most likely which of the following:

a. Alveolar bone loss

b. Loss of attachment

c. Deep gingival pocket

d. Canine eminence

e. Inflammed periodontal tissue

d. Canine eminence

Which statement is correct regarding oral prophylaxis?

a. Only a dental hygienist may perform the procedure

b. Root planing is an integral part of root maintenance associated with oral prophylaxis

c. Scaling is the supragingival and subgingival calculus removal along with portions of cementum

d. Sealant is applied to prevent the formation of dental plaque

e. All statements above are false

d. Sealant is applied to prevent the formation of dental plaque

The advantages of Nitrous oxide include all of the following except?

a. Immediate pain reduction during a procedure

b. anxiety reduction

c. Long lasting pain reduction

d. none of the above

c. Long lasting pain reduction

The extraoral finger fulcrum technique involves:

a. Placing the pads and fingers of your hands as support outside the mouth.

b. Placing your finger fulcrum outside the mouth in order to establish a steady support for allowing wrist

movements.

c. Placing the front or back surfaces of your hands on the outside of the mouth as support for

instrumentation.

d. Both a & b

e. None of the above

c. Placing the front or back surfaces of your hands on the outside of the mouth as support for

instrumentation.

Oral prophylaxis includes all of the following except: a) supragingival scaling b) removal of plaque c)

subgingival scaling d) removal of calculus e) none of the above

a. Supragingival scaling

b. Removal of plaque

c. Subgingival scaling

d. Removal of calculus

e. none of the above

e. none of the above

The biologically damaging effects of ionizing radiation are divided into the following categories except:

a. Somatic deterministic effects

b. Somatic stochastic effects

c. Genetic stochastic effects

d. Genetic deterministic effects

d. Genetic deterministic effects

*** Stochastic effects of ionizing radiation exposure are those effects whose probability of occurrence increases with dose but whose severity is independent of dose. Examples of stochastic effects are cancer (a somatic risk of ionizing radiation exposure) and hereditary disorders (a genetic risk of ionizing radiation exposure). A stochastic effect is an all-or- none effect that can arise from damage to the DNA of a single cell; there is no threshold dose required to produce it. Deterministic effects of ionizing radiation exposure are somatic and genetic effects whose severity does increase with dose

because of a proportional increase in damage or death to cells.

All of the following are possible causes of blackening/pigmentation of the gingival mucosa except"

a. Increased activity of melanin production

b. Oral Contraceptives

c. Increased number of melanocytes

d. Gingival tattooing

e. Both a & c

c. Increased number of melanocytes

What class of malocclusion is characteristic of a protruding mandible?

a. Class I

b. Class II Division I

c. Class II Division II

d. Class III

d. Class III

**Class I: Neutrocclusion Here the molar relationship of the occlusion is normal or as described for the maxillary first molar, but the other teeth have problems like spacing, crowding, over or under eruption, etc.

Class II: Distocclusion (retrognathism, overjet) In this situation, the upper molars are placed not in the mesiobuccal groove but anteriorly to it. Usually the mesiobuccal cusp rests in between the first mandibular molars and second premolars. There are two subtypes:

o Class II Division 1: The molar relationships are like that of Class II and the anterior teeth are

protruded.

o Class II Division 2: The molar relationships are class II but the central are retroclined and the lateral teeth are seen overlapping the centrals.

Class III: Mesiocclusion (prognathism,negative overjet) is when the lower front teeth are more prominent than the upper front teeth. In this case the patient very often has a large mandible or a short maxillary bone.

Which of the following are classified as third molar impactions?

a. Mesial

b. Distal

c. Horizontal

d. Vertical

e. All of the above

e. All of the above

****Mesioangular impaction is the most common form (44%), and means the tooth is angled forward, towards the front of the mouth.

Vertical impaction (38%) occurs when the formed tooth does not erupt fully through the gum line.

Distoangular impaction (6%) means the tooth is angled backward, towards the rear of the mouth.

Horizontal impaction (3%) is the least common form, which occurs when the tooth is angled fully ninety degrees sideways, growing into the roots of the second molar

True or False: Tungsten is a metal excited by electrons.

a. True

b. False

a. True

What is the proper dosage of Amoxicillin in adults for antibiotic prophylaxis?

a. 100 mg

b. 500 mg

c. 1 g

d. 2 g

d. 2 g

True or False: Scaling and root planing remove enamel.

a. True

b. False

b. False

Our patient comes in to the dental office with infections in the base of the root, severe overbite, and some

serious deep caries. What is the sequence of the best treatment plan to address these problems?

a. Correct severe overbite, infections, and caries restoration

b. # Address infections, severe overbite, then caries restoration

c. # Restore caries as you get rid of the infection. The overbite can be left alone.

d. # First, get rid of infections, and then restore caries. If patient agrees, overbite may be corrected by

orthodontic measures.

e. None of the above

d. # First, get rid of infections, and then restore caries. If patient agrees, overbite may be corrected by

orthodontic measures.

A dentist is about to perform dental procedures that require local anesthesia. The patient has high BP. What

type of local anesthesia would he choose?

a. Lidocaine

b. CARBOCAINE (mepivacaine hydrochloride without vasoconstrictors)

c. Bupivacaine

d. Two of the above

e. None of the above

b. CARBOCAINE (mepivacaine hydrochloride without vasoconstrictors)

A patients dental records are the property of:

a. The patient

b. The dentist

c. HIPAA board

d. The state board

e. None of the above

b. The dentist

Bitewing Radiographs are most helpful for identifying?

a. Root abscesses

b. Mal-occlusion

c. Caries in between the teeth

d. Xerostomia

e. Gingivitis

c. Caries in between the teeth

Class I occlusion is considered

a. Normal occlusion

b. Mesioocclusion

c. Distoocclusion

d. Malocclusion

e. Hyperocclusion

a. Normal occlusion

What is the proper sequence of the phases of treatment planning?

a. control - maintenance - holding - definitive

b. maintenance - control - definitive - holding

c. control - holding - definitive - maintenance

d. definitive - control - maintenance - holding

c. control - holding - definitive - maintenance

Among the following, the most efficient method of brushing is:

a. sulcular brushing aka Bass

b. the Stillman technique

c. the side-to- side technique

d. the Charter technique

a. sulcular brushing aka Bass

Generally, the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic therapy covering dental procedures in the patient with a

heart valve abnormality is

a. penicillin.

b. lincomycin

c. C. tetracycline.

d. D. streptomycin.

e. erythromycin

a. penicillin.

Dental plaque arises as a result of enzymatic reactions using which of the following?

a. sucrose and lipid

b. sucrose and saliva

c. glucose and saliva

d. glucose and protein

b. sucrose and saliva

The initial bacteria observed in dental plaque are

a. spirochetes

b. streptococci.

c. staphylococci.

d. actinomycetes.

b. streptococci.

Periodontitis is characterized by the following, except...

a. Loss of Epithelial Attachment

b. Destruction of the Periodontal Ligament

c. Resurgence of Interdental Papilla

d. Destruction of Alveolar Bone

c. Resurgence of Interdental Papilla

Oral contraceptives suppress which two of the following hormones?

a. FSH and LH

b. Estrogen and progestin

c. Estrogen and progesterone

d. LH and progesterone

e. FSH and progesterone

a. FSH and LH

Dental plaque is composed of:

a. Gram-positive bacteria

b. Epithelial cells

c. Gram-negative bacteria

d. A & C

e. All of the above

e. All of the above

Which of the following is NOT true with oral contraceptives (birth control pills) promoting hypercoagulation?

a. increases platelet count

b. elevates levels of prothrombin

c. decreases levels of protein S

d. resistance to activate protein C (APC)

e. decrease levels of antithrombin

a. increases platelet count

In the State of California, which of the following is true about the duties of dental hygienists:

a. root planning

b. Apply pit and fissure sealants

c. Polish and contour restorations

d. periodontal charting

e. All of the above

e. All of the above

Which one of the following is not considered part of the initial interview of the new dental patient?

a. chief complaint

b. review of symptoms

c. treatment plan

d. drug allergy history

e. type of dental insurance

c. treatment plan

Which of the following is NOT a part of the ethical principles set forth by the ADA?

a. Patient Autonomy

b. Compassion

c. Justice

d. Veracity

e. Benefice

b. Compassion

Furcation involvements can be categorized as:

a. class I, incipient

b. Class II, definite

c. Class III, through and through

d. None of the above

e. All of the above

e. All of the above

* there are five classes

Dental Assistants are able to perform all of the following procedures except?

a. asking about the patient's medical history and taking blood pressure and pulse

b. teaching patients appropriate oral hygiene strategies to maintain oral health

c. taking impressions of patient's teeth for study casts

d. perform oral prophylaxis

d. perform oral prophylaxis

Which of the following causes an increase in radiographic density?

a. decreased mA

b. decreased kVp

c. decreased target-object distance

d. increased object-film distance

e. none of the above

c. decreased target-object distance

Which of the following is NOT a type of dental supervision?

a. direct supervision

b. indirect supervision

c. general supervision

d. personal supervision

b. indirect supervision

Where is the preferred location for tissue donation for a connective tissue graft?

a. palate

b. buccal surface

c. sublingual surface

d. gluteus maximus

a. palate

Which tooth will mandibular tori most likely distort in a radiographic image?

a. . mandibular central incisor

b. mandibular third molar

c. mandibular fourth molar

d. mandibular second premolar

d. mandibular second premolar

Which rule states that the amount of radiation decreases as the distance increases?

a. quadratic square law

b. proportional radiographic law

c. inverse square law

d. exponential exposure law

c. inverse square law

The essential components of informed consent are:

a. description of procedure

b. risks and benefits

c. other options to procedure

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

1)Which of the following is FALSE regarding the use of Nitrous Oxide (N2O) in a medical/dental setting? a]

N2O can cause a modest increase in respiratory rate b] N2O can cause an increase in cerebral blood flow and

intracranial pressure c] N2O alone can be used as a complete general anesthetic d] N2O is a stimulant of the sympathetic nervous system e] N2O is associated with a higher incidence of epinephrine-induced arrhythmias

c] N2O alone can be used as a complete general anesthetic

2)Which of the following best describe how an X-ray is produce in an X-ray tube a. An electron from the

cathode interacts with an electron in the anode b. A photon from the cathode interacts with an electron in the

anode c. An electron from the cathode interacts with the nucleus of an atom in the anode. d. A photon from the

cathode interacts with the nucleus of an atom in the anode. e. A photon from the cathode interacts with the

nucleus of an atom in the anode.

An electron from the cathode interacts with the nucleus of an atom in the anode.

What is the most common "gold standard" anaesthetic used in dentistry? a Cocaine

b. Lidocaine

c.Novocaine

d. Carbocaine e. Marcaine

b. Lidocaine

All of the following duties must be done by RDA or RDAEF under direct supervision of a licensed dentist, EXCEPT:

a. Administration of local anesthesia

b. Placing a suture

c. Placing a permanent restoration

d.periodontal soft tissue curettage

e. a and b

a. Administration of local anesthesia, b. Placing a suture

Which dental instrument(s) is/are primarily used for the removal of plaque?

a. excavator

b. scalers

c.Periodontal probe

d. condensers/pluggers

e. carvers

b. scalers

Which of the following is true of an x-ray beam in dental imaging?

a. The incident beam is spatially homogenous; the remnant beam is spatially homogenous.

b. The incident beam is spatially homogenous; the remnant beam is spatially heterogenous.

c. The incident beam is spatially heterogenous; the remnant beam is spatially heterogenous.

d. The incident beam is spatially heterogenous; the remnant beam is spatially homogenous.

b. The incident beam is spatially homogenous; the remnant beam is spatially heterogenous.

A patient with a prominent, protruded mandible and (usually) a normal maxilla is said to have a jaw structure

that is:

a. Prognathic

b. Retrognathic

c. Mesognathic

d. Mandoprotrusional

a. Prognathic

Which of the following is false?

a. X-rays are high-energy photons.

b. X-rays are characterized by their frequency, measured in eV.

c. X-rays are produced from electron interactions with large nuclei.

d. X-rays are an example of electromagnetic radiation.

b. X-rays are characterized by their frequency, measured in eV.

What is the correct order of biofilm formation?

a. Colonization, expansion, production of matrix.

b. Colonization, production of matrix, expansion.

c. Production of matrix, colonization, expansion.

d. Production of matrix, expansion, colonization.

a. Colonization, expansion, production of matrix.

Normal gingiva has:

a. Pocket depth, 2mm; mobility, 3mm; furcation, class II.

b. Pocket depth, 3mm; mobility, 1mm; furcation, class I.

c. Pocket depth, 2mm; mobility, 0mm; furcation, none.

d. Pocket depth, 1mm; mobility, 1mm; furcation, none.

c. Pocket depth, 2mm; mobility, 0mm; furcation, none

A typical TMJ examination would NOT include:

a. range of movement

b. tooth mobility measurements

c. muscle tenderness

d. headache experience

e. occlusion

b. tooth mobility measurements

Bitewing radiographs are used to

a. detect caries between teeth

b. examine the margins of restorations

c. determine the length of the root trunk

d. a and b

e. a, b and c

d. a and b

The order of information gathering during the check-in procedure is the following:

a. Radiographic examination, patient history, clinical examination, diagnostic aids

b. Clinical examination, radiographic examination, patient history, dignostic aids

c. Patient history, radiographic examination, clinical examination, dianostic aids

d. Patient history, radiographic examination, clinical examination, diagnostic aids

d. Patient history, radiographic examination, clinical examination, diagnostic aid

Health Insurers and Providers who are covered entities must comply with your right to:

a. Ask to see and get a copy of your health records.

b. Have corrections added to your health information

c. Receive a notice that tells you how your health information may be used and shared

d. Decide if you want to give your permission before your health information can be used or shared for

certain purposes, such as for marketing

e. All of the above

e. All of the above

What form should be used by the dentist to know about patient anxiety scale?

a. HIPAA

b. ADA form

c. CORAH

d. Medical history

e. Pain scale

c. CORAH

Which is NOT true of acetaminophen?

a. Increases the pain threshold by inhibiting cyclooxygenase in the CNS

b. If taken in excess of the recommended dosage, a toxic metabolite can cause liver injury.

c. Produces antipyresis by blocking the effect of endogenous pyrogen on the hypothalamic heat-regulating center

d. Exerts anti-inflammatory effect by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis in the peripheral tissues

d. Exerts anti-inflammatory effect by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis in the peripheral tissues

The lateral border of the gingival sulcus is

a. lamina propria

b. epithelial attachment

c. sulcular epithelium

d. dental cuticle

e. junctional epithelium

c. sulcular epithelium

X-rays are produced when

a. neutrons are released by the bombardment of an atom by accelerated electrons

b. electrons shift from a lower to a higher level in an atom

c. protons are released by the bombardment of an atom by accelerated electrtons

d. high speed electrons are suddenly stopped or slowed down by the nucleus of an atom

d. high speed electrons are suddenly stopped or slowed down by the nucleus of an atom

Which of the following causes gingival mucosal discoloration?

a. Jaundice

b. Inflammation

c. Diet

d. Tobacco Use

e. All of the above can cause discoloration in gingival mucosa

e. All of the above can cause discoloration in gingival mucosa

Blood pressure should be measured on the _______ artery and pulse should be measured on the _______

artery.

a. brachial, ulnar

b. brachial, radial

c. axillary, ulnar

d. axillary, radial

e. axillary, brachial

b. brachial, radial

The cardinal signs of inflmmation are:

a. rubor

b. rubor, dolor

c. rubor, dolor, tumor

d. rubor, dolor, tumor, calor

e. rubor, dolor, tumor, calor, functio laesa

e. rubor, dolor, tumor, calor, functio laesa

Temporomandibular joint disorders includes those with true pathology of the joint and those with involvement

of the muscles of facial expression.

a. The first part of the statement is true, the second part is false.

b. The first part of the statement is false, the second part is true.

c. Both parts of the statement are true.

d. Both parts of the statement are false.

a. The first part of the statement is true, the second part is false.

Which of the following types of intra-oral radiographs are most useful in detecting interproximal caries?

a. Periapical radiographs

b. Bitewing radiographs

c. PAN radiographs

d. Occlusal radiographs

e. None of the Above

b. Bitewing radiographs

What does ASA 3 classification mean?

a. Severe systemic disease, definite functional impairment

b. Severe systemic disease, constant threat to life

c. Mild systemic disease, no functional limitation

d. Unstable moribund patient, not expected to survive 24 hours

a. Severe systemic disease, definite functional impairment

Which is true when interpreting radiographs?

a. White image represents metal fillings

b. Dark grey image represents healthy enamel

c. Black image represents dense bone material

d. Creamy white image represents the air

a. White image represents metal fillings

Anatomic considerations in obtaining excellent periapical dental x-rays include knowledge of the location of

the

a. long axis of the teeth

b. apices of the teeth

c. occlusal plane

d. a and b

e. a, b and c

d. a and b

Systolic blood pressure is determined by the

a. degree of elasticity of the wall of systemic arteries

b. force of ventricular contraction

c. stroke volume of ventricular contraction

d. all of the above

d. all of the above