Bio 172 Final Exam Review

Which of the following is the best definition of microevolution?

a. descent with modification.

b. change in allele frequencies in a population over time

c. survival of the fittest

d. inheritance of acquired traits

e. homologous structures

b. change in allele frequencies in a population over time

Which of these conditions DO NOT occur in populations evolving through natural selection?

a. the populations vary in traits that can be inherited.

b. some inherited traits increase reproductive success.

c. individuals pass on most traits that they acquire during their lifetime.

d. more offspring are produced than can survive.

e. all of these conditions occur in populations evolving due to natural selection

c. individuals pass on most traits that they acquire during their lifetime.

Bagworm moth caterpillars feed on evergreens and carry a silken case or bag around with them in which they eventually pupate. Adult female bagworm moths are larval in appearance; they lack the wings and other structures of the adult male and instead, retain the appearance of a caterpillar even though they are sexually mature and can lay eggs within the bag. This is an example of:

a. allometric growth

b. paedomorphosis

c. sympatric speciation

d. adaptive radiation

e. allopatric speciation

b. paedomorphosis

Which of the following organisms would be LEAST likely to form a fossil?

a. a rare worm

b. a common worm

c. a rare squirrel

d. a common squirrel

e. none of these would be able to form a fossil

a. a rare worm

What is one reason that fossils are considered to be an incomplete record of evolution?

a. the fossil record shows changes in kinds of organisms that lived on earth

b. the fossil record shows that many animals are extinct

c. the fossil record is biased for organisms that had hard shells and skeletons

d. fossils document how new organisms come from preexisting organisms

e. the fossil record displays patterns of macroevolutions

c. the fossil record is biased for organisms that had hard shells and skeletons

Which of the following statements about species, as defined by the ‘Biological Species Concept’ is (are) correct?

I. Biological species are defined by reproductive isolation.

II. Biological species are grouped based on ecology. III. Biological species are grouped based on appearance

a. I only

b. II only

c. I and II

d. II and III

e. I, II, and III

A. I only

The effect of which Hardy-Weinberg condition is highly affected by population size?

a. selection

b. genetic drift

b. gene flow

d. mutation

e. none of the above

b. genetic drift

A genetic change that caused a certain *Hox* gene to be expressed along the tip of a vertebrate limb bud instead of farther back helped make possible the evolution of the tetrapod limb. This type of change is illustrative of:

a. the influence of the environment on development

b. paedomorphosis

c. a change in the developmental gene or in its regulation that altered the spatial organization of body parts

d. heterochrony

c. a change in the developmental gene or in its regulation that altered the spatial organization of body parts

The frequency of a rare recessive genetic disease is 9 per 2,500 births among Northern Europeans. Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the approximate frequency of heterozygous carriers?

a. 0.0036

b. 0.06

c. 0.11

d. 0.88

e. 0.94

c. 0.11

Three populations of crickets look very similar, but the males have different courtship songs. If the cricket populations were to overlap in the same geographical area in the wild, the different courtship songs would most likely function as which type of reproductive isolating mechanism?

a. temporal

b. postzygotic

c. behavioral

d. gametic

e. hybrid breakdown

If the half-life of carbon-14 is about 5,250 years, then a fossil that has 1/4 of the normal proportions of carbon-14 to carbon-12 should be about how many years old?

a. 1,313

b. 2,625

c. 5,250

d. 10,500

e. 21,000

d. 10,500

Which of the following should occur in hybrid zones where reinforcement is occurring?

a. gene flow between the two overlapping species should decrease

b. gene flow between the two overlapping species should increase

c. the overlapping species will migrate away from each other

d. hybrid sterility between the two species will decrease

e. all of these things could happen

a. gene flow between the two overlapping species should decrease

Bird guides once listed the myrtle warbler and Audubon's warbler as distinct species. Recently, these birds have been classified as eastern and western forms of a single species, the yellow-rumped warbler. According to the biological species concept, which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would be cause for this reclassification?

a. the two forms are observed to interbreed successfully where their habitats overlap

b. the two forms have similar food requirements

c. the two forms have the same behaviors

d. the two forms are very similar in coloration

e. the two forms are NOT able to produce fertile offspring

a. the two forms are observed to interbreed successfully where their habitats overlap

Which of the following factors most likely prevented adaptive radiation by mammals BEFORE the dinosaurs went extinct?

a. nocturnal vision of the original mammals

b. predation of dinosaur eggs by the original mammals

c. variation in teeth of the original mammals

d. competition for food with the dinosaurs

e. paedomorphosis presented by the dinosaurs

d. competition for food with the dinosaurs

Beetle pollinators of a particular plant are attracted to its flowers' bright orange color. The beetles not only pollinate the flowers, but they mate while inside the flowers. A mutant version of the plant with red flowers becomes more common with the passage of time. A particular variant of the beetle prefers the red flowers to the orange flowers. Over time, these two beetle variants diverge from each other to such an extent that interbreeding is no longer possible. Which of the following possible causes of speciation best describes the beetle example and what factor has driven it?

a. allopatric speciation; ecological isolation

b. allopatric speciation; behavioral isolation

c. sympatric speciation; habitat differentiation

d. sympatric speciation; allopolyploidy

c. sympatric speciation; habitat differentiation

After a drought in 1977, researchers hypothesized that on the Galápagos Island Daphne Major, medium ground finches with large, deep beaks survived better than those with smaller beaks because they could more easily crack and eat the tough *Tribulus cistoides* fruits. A tourist company sets up reliable feeding stations with a variety of bird seeds (different types and sizes) so that tourists can get a better look at the finches. Which of the following events is now most likely to occur to finch beaks on this island?

a. evolution of yet larger deeper beaks over time, until all birds have relatively large, deep beaks

b. evolution of smaller, pointier beaks over time, untial all birds have relatively small, pointy beaks

c. increased variation in beak size and shape over time

d. no change in beak size and shape over time

c. increased variation in beak size and shape over time

Which of the following statements best describes evolution?

a. the match between individuals and their environment decreases over time

b. populations change genetically from one generation to the next

c. natural selection favors the most abundant trait

d. individuals evolve

e. all the above

b. populations change genetically from one generation to the next

Stabilizing selection:

A. Usually results in two distinct phenotypes

B. Prevents mutations from occurring

C. Occurs when some individuals migrate to a different population

D. Favors intermediate variants in a population

E. Occurs only in plants

D. Favors intermediate variants in a population

Soapberry bugs feed on the fruits of plants using a ‘beak’ to reach the seeds inside. A few years after a new species of plant with small fruits, called golden rain tree, invaded an area, the average beak length of the soapberry bug population was smaller than before. The most likely explanation for this is:

A. Disruptive selection

B. Stabilizing selection

C. Directional selection

D. Genetic drift

E. The bottleneck effect

C. directional selection

Which of the following is the most accurate method to measure the age of a body fossil?

A. Radiometric dating

B. Determining the order of fossils in rock strata

C. Sequencing the DNA

D. Quantifying the total remaining protein content of the fossil

a. radiometric dating

A defining characteristic of allopatric speciation is:

A. The appearance of new species in the midst of old ones

B. Asexually reproducing populations

C. Geographic isolation

D. Large populations

E. Lack of geographic isolation

C. geographic isolation

The increase in species diversity (*i.e., number of species*) that occurred soon after the Permian extinction is due to:

A. An evolutionary innovation among the species

B. Adaptive radiation into the newly unoccupied niches

C. The evolution of humans

D. The increase of oxygen in the atmosphere

E. The mass extinction of all prokaryotic organisms

B. Adaptive radiation into the newly unoccupied niches

Which of the following statements about genetic variation is accurate?

A. Genetic variation is created by the direct action of natural selection.

B. Genetic variation arises in response to changes in the environment.

C. Genetic variation must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population.

D. Genetic variation tends to be reduced when diploid organisms produce gametes.

C. Genetic variation must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population.

Suppose 64% of the individuals in a remote mountain village can taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC) and must, therefore, have at least one copy of the dominant PTC taster allele. If this population conforms to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for this gene, what percent of the population must be heterozygous for this trait?

A. 16%

B. 32%

C. 40%

D. 48%

E. 64%

D. 48%

The Galapagos archipelago appeared about 2 million years ago, when submerged volcanoes (seamounts) rose above the ocean's surface. A single colonization event introduced a species of finch to one island in the distant past. Today, several islands in the archipelago contain unique species of finches. What likely happened following the initial colonization event to account for the current situation?

A. Spontaneous generation

B. Hybrid vigor

C. Convergent evolution

D. Adaptive radiation

E. Analogy

D. Adaptive radiation

Which of the following statements best describes the effect of natural selection on a population?

A. Improved match between a population and its environment

B. Increased genetic variation among individuals in a population

C. Increased mutation rate in the population

D. Reduction in population size

E. Decreased fertility rates

A. Improved match between a population and its environment

An earthquake decimates a ground-squirrel population, killing 98% of the squirrels. The surviving population has broader stripes, on average, than the initial population. If broadness of stripes is genetically determined, which of the following processes most likely caused the change?

A. Directional selection

B. Disruptive selection

C. A founder event

D. A bottleneck effect

d. A bottleneck effect

A new species was created by an accident during meiotic division in a single parent species. The original parent species had a diploid number of 8, and the new species is a tetraploid with double the amount of all chromosomes, resulting in 16 total chromosomes. This is a good example of:

A. Allopatric speciation

B. Meiotic speciation

C. Autopolyploidy

D. Nanopolyploidy

E. Allopolyploidy

C. Autopolyploidy

Based on the paleontological record, what is thought to be the correct sequence of these events, from earliest to most recent, in the evolution of life on Earth? (*Note: rank these from oldest to most recent*.)


1. Colonization of land
2. Origin of multicellular eukaryotes
3. Increase in atmospheric oxygen
4. Origin of prokaryotes
5. Origin of humans

A. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5

B. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5

C. 4, 3, 1, 5, 2

D. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5

E. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5

E. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5

If the bacterium *Staphylococcus aureus* experiences a cost for maintaining one or more antibiotic-resistance genes, what would be most likely to happen in environments that lack antibiotics?

A. These bacteria would maintain the antibiotic-resistance genes in case the antibiotics reappear.

B. These bacteria would try to make the cost worthwhile by locating and migrating to microenvironments where traces of antibiotics are present.

C. These bacteria would be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost the antibiotic resistance genes

D. These bacteria would increase the number of genes conveying antibiotic resistance.

E. These bacteria would mutate to pick up new antibiotic resistance genes.

C. These bacteria would be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost the antibiotic resistance genes

Which of the following consistently causes adaptive evolution?

A. Only natural selection

B. Only genetic drift

C. Only gene flow

D. Both genetic drift and gene flow

E. All of these consistently bring about adaptive evolution

A. Only natural selection

Adaptation (*in Darwin's theory of evolution*) is:

A. A heritable trait that promotes survival and reproduction

B. Adjustments during development of an individual

C. A way to cope with stress in the environment

D. The ability to live at high altitude

E. A non-heritable trait that arises when needed

A. A heritable trait that promotes survival and reproduction

The number of cichlid species in Lake Victoria is declining, in part because of predation by Nile perch. Which of the following factors could also contribute to a decline in the number of cichlid species in Lake Victoria?

A. Reinforcement of isolating mechanisms

B. Fusion of species

C. Stability of species

D. Development of polyploidy

E. Adaptive radiation

B. Fusion of species

Studies of Neanderthal DNA revealed that there are more similarities to non-African DNA than reference sequences from West Africans. Additionally, scientists found that Neanderthal DNA is as closely related to East Asians as to Europeans. These patterns indicate that interbreeding occurred before human migration further east. Which evolutionary force most likely generated these results?

A. Adaptive evolution

B. Gene flow

C. Genetic drift

D. Nonrandom mating

E. All of the above.

B. Gene flow

The biological species concept is NOT useful for organisms known only from fossils because:

A. Fossils are rarely preserved well enough to distinguish species based on morphology.

B. It is not possible to infer the types of habitats occupied by fossil forms before their extinction.

C. Fossils don’t mate.

D. Based on the fossil record, all organisms that existed in the past were single-celled and asexual.

E. Fossils cannot be accurately dated.

C. Fossils don’t mate.

No two people are genetically identical, except for identical twins. The main source of genetic variation among humans is:

A. New mutations that occurred in the preceding generation

B. Genetic drift

C. The reshuffling of alleles in sexual reproduction

D. Environmental effects

E. The Founder Effect

C. The reshuffling of alleles in sexual reproduction

A bat’s wing and a whale’s flipper have similar bone structure that reflects a common ancestor they share from the past. The flipper and the wing would therefore be called:

A. Frequency-dependent structures

B. Homologous structures

C. Bottleneck effects

D. Arm-thingies

E. Both A and C

B. Homologous structures

The general process through which genes are transferred directly from parent cell to daughter cell is called:

A. Conjugation

B. Transformation

C. Transduction

D. Horizontal gene transfer

E. Vertical gene transfer

E. Vertical gene transfer

Double fertilization means that angiosperms:

A. have two sperm nuclei, which simultaneously fertilize the single egg.

B. have embryos that are triploid.

C. produce twice as many embryos per fertilization event as do gymnosperms.

D. are the only plants that can produce dizygotic twins.

E. have two sperm nuclei that will help form the embryo and endosperm (the food reserve for the baby plant)

E. have two sperm nuclei that will help form the embryo and endosperm (the food reserve for the baby plant)

A 'heterosporous' plant is one that:

A. Produces microspores and megaspores, which give rise to male and female gametophytes

B. Only produces one type of spore and generally has bisexual gametophytes

C. Only reproduces only asexually

D. Produces two kinds of spores, one asexually by mitosis and the other sexually by meiosis

E. Produces spores all year long instead of during just one season

A. Produces microspores and megaspores, which give rise to male and female gametophytes

A Photoautotroph:

A. Uses light as an energy source, and CO2 as a carbon source

B. Uses inorganic chemicals as an energy source, and CO2 as a carbon source

C. Uses organic chemicals as an energy source, and as a source of carbon

D. Uses light as an energy source, and organic compounds as a carbon source

E. Uses inorganic chemicals as an energy source, and organic compounds as a carbon source

A. Uses light as an energy source, and CO2 as a carbon source

Researchers are able to to predict features of an ancestor from features of its descendants using ___________, which has been used to correctly predict that dinosaurs built nests and brooded (incubated their eggs).

A. Phylogenetic bracketing

B. Taxonomy

C. The traditional Linnaean classification system

D. Binomial nomenclature

E. Magic

A. Phylogenetic bracketing

In the tree below, which letter represents the *most recent* common ancestor of the sponge and mushroom?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

D. D

Plants posses much ecological and economical importance to humans. Which of the following statements accurately describes one specific role of the angiosperms? 

A. Form extensive deposits of partially decayed organic material (a.k.a. - 'peat'), which can be used as a fuel source

B. Make up the majority of food crops and the calories consumed by humans

C. Formed the first forests on earth, which resulted in the breakdown of rocks, releasing chemicals that reacted with carbon dioxide, causing global cooling and glaciation

D. Can inhibit the decay of other organisms

E. Their seeds develop inside of cones, which help soils retain moisture and suppress weeds when those cones fall onto the nearby ground

B. Make up the majority of food crops and the calories consumed by humans

ALL protists:

A. are prokaryotes

B. are single-celled organisms

C. reproduce through binary fission

D. are multicellular

E. have a nucleus in their cells

E. have a nucleus in their cells

This type of bacteria has a very thin peptidoglycan cell wall, which is sandwiched between two distinct membranes:

A. Gram-negative bacteria

B. Gram-positive bacteria

C. Photoautotrophic bacteria

D. Photoheterotrophic bacteria

E. Archaea

A. Gram-negative bacteria

Based on the plant fossil record, which of these events likely occurred most recently?

A. Extensive growth of gymnosperm forests

B. Colonization of land by early nonvascular liverworts and mosses

C. Rise and diversification of angiosperm flowering plants

D. Carboniferous swamps with giant horsetails and lycophytes (seedless vascular plants)

C. Rise and diversification of angiosperm flowering plants

Species that do NOT share many obvious anatomical similarities can still be placed together on the same phylogenetic tree by comparing their:

A. DNA

B. Chloroplasts

C. Eye color

D. Cellular structure

E. Checkbooks

A. DNA

If organisms C, D, and E belong to the same class but to different orders and if organisms A, B, and C belong to the same order but to different families, which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology?

A. A and D

B. B and D

C. B and C

D. D and E

E. C and D

C. B and C

In an organism exhibiting alternation of generations, the diploid sporophyte produces haploid ___________ by ___________.

A. gametes; mitosis

B. gametes; meiosis

C. spores; meiosis

D. spores; mitosis

E. zygotes; mitosis

C. spores; meiosis

Based on this phylogenetic tree that depicts the origins of life and the three domains, which domains of life have experienced horizontal gene transfer?

A. All three of them

B. Archaea and Bacteria only

C. Archaea and Eukarya only

D. Bacteria only

E. None of them

A. All three of them

In the phylogenetic trees shown, each number represents a unique species of organisms. Which two species are represented as sister taxa in Tree 2 but are NOT represented as sister taxa in Tree 1?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 4 and 5

C. 3 and 4

In which part of a bacterium can you find the chromosome (the essential circular DNA containing heredity information)?

A. mitochondrion

B. nucleoid

C. nucleus

D. plasmid

E. chloroplast

B. nucleoid

This type of genetic recombination occurs when a 'competent' bacterium uptakes naked DNA from its surrounding environment via DNA-binding proteins on its cell wall.

A. Transformation

B. Transduction

C. Transposon

D. General conjugation

E. Conjugation mediated by an Hfr cell

A. Transformation

Which eukaryotic kingdom includes members that are the result of an endosymbiosis between an ancient aerobic prokaryotic cell and an ancient cyanobacterium (photosynthetic prokaryote)?

A. Plantae

B. Fungi

C. Animalia

D. Bacteria

E. Archaea

A. Plantae

Genetic variation in bacterial populations can NOT result from:

A. Transduction

B. Conjugation

C, Mutation

D. Meiosis

E. Transformation

D. Meiosis

If all prokaryotes on Earth suddenly vanished, which of the following would be the most likely and most direct result?

A. human populations would thrive in the absence of disease

B. bacteriophage (viruses that infect bacteria) numbers would dramatically increase

C. the recycling of nutrients would be greatly reduced 

D. there would be no more pathogens

E. atmospheric oxygen levels would increase

C. the recycling of nutrients would be greatly reduced 

Thinking about the fertility plasmid in bacteria, which of the following statements correctly describes F- cells and F+ cells?

A. Both types of cells can donate F plasmids to other cells

B. Neither types of cells can donate F plasmids to other cells

C. F+ cells function as DNA donors during conjugation and F- cells function as DNA recipients during conjugation

D. F+ cells function as DNA recipients during conjugation and F- cells function as DNA donors during conjugation

E. F+ cells facilitate viral transduction, while F- cells do not

C. F+ cells function as DNA donors during conjugation and F- cells function as DNA recipients during conjugation

Not present in all bacteria, this cell covering made of dense, tightly-bound repeating glycoprotein subunits that coats the outside of the cell wall and enables cells that possess it to adhere to surfaces and to resist the defenses of host organisms. It is commonly formed by many pathogenic bacteria.

A. Sex pilus

B. Capsule (glycocalyx)

C. Flagellum

D. Endospore

E. Cell membrane

B. Capsule (glycocalyx)

Why are protists considered important PRODUCERS in aquatic communities?

A. Because they are photosynthetic and make up a substantial amount of the total photosynthesis in the world

B. Because a large number of them are predators

C. Because a large number of them are parasites

D. Because a large number of them perform endosymbiosis

E. Because most of them are unicellular

A. Because they are photosynthetic and make up a substantial amount of the total photosynthesis in the world

Which of the following is a correct use of the binomial nomenclature system that we use to assign all living organisms a scientific name?

A. Human beings

*B. Homo sapiens*

C. Humans

D. *Hominidae*

E. Homo Sapiens

B. *Homo sapiens*

In a typical angiosperm, what is the sequence of structures encountered by the tip of a growing pollen tube? 


1. egg
2. style
3. ovary
4. stigma

A. 4 → 3 → 2 → 1

B. 4 → 2 → 3 → 1

C. 1 → 4 → 2 → 3

D. 3 → 2 → 4 → 1

E. 1 → 3 → 4 → 2

B. 4 → 2 → 3 → 1

Which of the following best states the evolutionary advantages that seeds posses?

A. Seeds contain embryonic plants, an abundant food supply, and a protective covering.

B. Seeds are single cells, demanding fewer nutrients from the parent plants.

C. Most seeds are poisonous; therefore, they are not consumed by animals and persist in the environment for long periods of time.

D. Seeds can outcompete their parent plants.

E. Seeds cannot be spread/dispersed easily.

A. Seeds contain embryonic plants, an abundant food supply, and a protective covering.

Based on our understanding of the phylogeny of eukaryotic organisms, which of the following is NOT considered a eukaryotic supergroup?

A. Excavata

B. SAR clade

C. Archaeplastida

D. Unikonta

E. Protists

E. Protists

The haploid gametophyte stage of the plant life cycle is most dominant in:

A. Ferns (a seedless vascular plant)

B. Mosses (a non-vascular bryophyte)

C. Angiosperms

D. Gymnosperms

E. All seed plants

B. Mosses (a non-vascular bryophyte)

Regardless of whether it's prokaryotic or eukaryotic, what features must ALL cells posses?

A. Cell wall, Nucleus, Cytoplasm

B. Cell membrane, DNA, Ribosomes, Cytoplasm

C. DNA, Cell wall, Cell membrane, Cytoplasm, Ribosomes

D. Cytoplasm, Ribosomes, Nucleus, Cell membrane

E. Capsule, Cell wall, DNA, Cytoplasm

B. Cell membrane, DNA, Ribosomes, Cytoplasm

This is a highly diverse group of protists is defined more by DNA similarities than by morphological similarities. It includes some pathogens as well as some key photosynthetic organisms, such as diatoms and dinoflagellates. Which eukaryotic supergroup does this describe?

A. Unikonta

B. SAR clade

C. Bacteria

D. Archaeplastida

E. Excavata

B. SAR clade

These are the closest living relatives to plants (that share cellulose-synthesizing protein arrangement, sperm structure, sporopollenin, and DNA similarities):

A. Amoebas

B. Red algae

C. A type of green algae called Charophytes

D. The bryophytes

E. Humans

C. A type of green algae called Charophytes

Which of the following is NOT common to ALL vascular plants?

A. Xylem and phloem

B. The development of seeds

C. Alternation of generations

D. Dominance of the diploid generation

E. Presence of apical meristems

B. The development of seeds

Which of the following flower parts includes ALL of the female reproductive structures?

A. Sepal

B. Petal

C. Carpel

D. Stigma

E. Stamen

C. Carpel

Which of the following is an early trend in the evolution of the vertebrates? (ie. evolved first then evolved later)

A, Medusa THEN polyp

B. Jawless THEN jawed

C. Haploid THEN diploid

D. Dorsal nerve cord THEN ventral nerve cord

E. Spores THEN sperm

B. Jawless THEN jawed

Evolution of the amniotic condition allows animals to

A. Survive in wetter conditions

B. Survive in drier conditions

C. Colonize the oceans

D. Reproduce asexually

E. Develop a head

B. Survive in drier conditions

Which of the following would Gnathostomes have?

A, hinged jaws

B. radial symmetry

C. exoskeletons of chitin

D. single set of HOX genes

E. both C and D

A, hinged jaws

Which of the following characteristics is shared by the hagfish (Myxini) and lamprey (Petromyzontida)  animals?

A. Three bones in the middle ear

B. Paired fins

C. Warm bloodedness

D. A true backbone and mineralized skeleton

E. No jaws

E. No jaws

Some fungal species live inside of plants and can kill herbivores that feed on the plant. What type of relationship does this fungus have with its host plant in this example?

A. Parasitic

B. Mutualistic

C. Predatory

D. Decomposer

E. Pathogenic

B. Mutualistic

Which of the following describes the evolution of multicellularity in fungi and animals?

A. Common ancestry

B. Convergent evolution

C. Inheritance of acquired traits

D. Formation of homologous structures

B. Convergent evolution

ALL fungi are:

A. Parasites

B. Heterotrophs that absorb external nutrients

C. Flagellated

D. Single-celled

E. Multi-cellular

B. Heterotrophs that absorb external nutrients

Whatever its ultimate cause(s), the Cambrian explosion is a prime example of:

A. Mass extinction

B. Evolutionary stasis

C. Adaptive radiation

D. A large meteor impact

E. Endangered species

C. Adaptive radiation

Fungi can exist either as unicellular organisms or as multicellular filaments. The unicellular form, which reproduce asexually in wet environments and are commonly used by humans for brewing, baking and genetic engineering, are also called: 

A. Yeast

B. Molds

C. Mushrooms

D. Hyphae

E. Mycelia

A. Yeast

ALL fungi are:

A. Prokaryotic

B. Eukaryotic

C. It depends on the species. Some are prokaryotes, while others are eukaryotes.

B. Eukaryotic

Which phylum is characterized by animals that have segmented bodies?

A. Cnidaria

B. Platyhelminthes

C. Porifera

D. Nematoda

E. Arthropoda

E. Arthropoda

Macroscopic fossils indicate that the first animals on Earth appeared during the

A. Neoproterozoic Era (1 billion-541 million years ago)

B. Paleozoic Era (541-252 million years ago)

C. Mesozoic Era (252-66 million years ago)

D. Cenozoic Era (66 million years ago to present)

E. Between c and d during a mass extinction

A. Neoproterozoic Era (1 billion-541 million years ago)

Which of the following characteristics represents the oldest branch point in animal phylogeny?

A. Radial or bilateral symmetry

B. Diploblastic or triploblastic embryos

C. True tissues or no tissues

A body cavity or no body cavity

E. Single celled or multicellular

C. True tissues or no tissues

You observe the gametes of a fungal species under the microscope and see a flagellated aquatic organism that resembles animal sperm. To which fungal phylum does it likely belong?

A. Ascomycota (ascomycetes)

B. Basidiomycota (basidiomycetes)

C. Chytridiomycota (chytrids)

D. Microsporidia (microsporidians)

E. Zoopagomycota (zoopagomycetes)

C. Chytridiomycota (chytrids)

Which of the following are thought to be the closest living relatives of fungi?

A. Animals

B. Vascular plants

C. Mosses

D. Archaea

E. Bacteria

A. Animals

About how many phyla of living animals are known on Earth today?

A. around a 1000

B. at least 35

C. approximately 10

D. no more than 3

E.1

B. at least 35

You discover a new animal on an African safari this summer, it has six pairs of appendages; sensory pedipalps, fangs, and four pairs of walking legs. Given this information you conclude it belongs in which of the following taxonomic groups?

A. Chelicerata

B. Myriopoda

C. Pancrustacea

D. Annelida

E. Reptilia

A. Chelicerata

Invertebrate animals of the Cnidaria phylum, such as hydras, jellies, sea anemones and corals, exhibit which of the following characteristics?

A. Have a backbone

B. Have bilateral symmetry

C. Lack symmetry both as larvae and adults

D. May exist in either a polyp or a medusa form, depending on the Cnidarian species

E. have a trochophore larval stage and a lophophore feeding structure as adults

D. May exist in either a polyp or a medusa form, depending on the Cnidarian species

Which of the following traits is characteristic of K-selected populations? *Hint: remember that ‘K’ refers to the carrying capacity of a population.*

A. Offspring receive a lot of parental care

B. Many offspring per reproductive episode

C. Small, unpotected offspring

D. A high intrinsic rate of increase

E. All of the above.

A. Offspring receive a lot of parental care

Leaf cutter ants have bacteria living on their bodies that can kill off an aggressive mold found in their nests that eats the ants' food.  The best word to describe the interaction between the ants and the bacteria that live on them would be

A. competition

B. predation

C. parasitism

D. commensalism

E. mutualism

E. mutualism

When crows drop whelks onto rocks to break their shells, they choose a medium height form most of their drops.  The behavior 

A. maximizes their chance of mating at the cost of energy consumption

B. is optimal for giving them the most food for the least amount of energy expended

C. is likely to be very visible to predators so it makes these crows call more often when foraging

D. shows that animals evolve perfect behavioral solutions

E. minimizes energy gained and maximizes energy expende

B. is optimal for giving them the most food for the least amount of energy expended

A new species of fish is discovered and studied. Observations show that each male guards a nest and fathers offspring from several females each year for several years in a row.  A word to describe this species would be

A. semelparous

B. iteroparous

C. monogamous

D. invasive

E. dispersal

B. iteroparous

Which of the following is true about the trade-offs in life history traits?

A. as fertility goes up, so does the probability of dying

B. as fertility goes up, so does longevity

C. when the cost of staying alive between years is high, organisms are unlikely to have any offspring

D. as life span increases, so will total number of offspring per reproductive event increase

E. both b and d

A. as fertility goes up, so does the probability of dying

Belding's Ground Squirrels yell loudly when they spot a predator.  This behavior is most likely done by _______ and likely evolved through_______.

A. females/ sexual selection

B. females/ kin selection

C. males/ sexual selection

D. males/ kin selection

E all individuals/costs outweighing benefits

B. females/ kin selection

A population ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, *Odocoileus virginianus*, per square kilometer (km) in a specific woodlot. What was the ecologist  measuring?

A. Density

B. Dispersion

C. Carrying capacity

D. Range

E. Survivorship

A. Density

In the equation rB > C, the C =

A. coelom size

B. cost to altruist

C. benefit to kin

D. cranial size

E. number of color genes

B. cost to altruist

Which of the following graphs (a-d) illustrates the population growth curve starting with a single bacterium growing in a flask of ideal medium at optimum temperature over a two-hour period?  \n *Assume that there are no limiting factors over this time frame.*

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

E. This is impossible to predict

C. Option C

Recent sea otter population declines in the Northern Pacific are most likely a result of:

A. An increase in predation by orca (killer whales)

B. An increase in sea urchin abundance

C. An increase in the abundance of oily fish species

D. A decrease in nitrogen resulting in decreasing kelp forests

E. High contaminant loads in orca (killer whales)

A. an increase in predation by orca

Concerning the ‘song’ of a humpback whale, which of the following is an example of an ultimate question?

A. What environmental cues initiate a whale’s song?

B. How does the song aid in the whale’s survival?

C. How do the whale’s muscles produce the song?

D. How does the whale’s experience influence song?

E. All of these are ultimate questions.

B. How does the song aid in the whale’s survival?

Which of the following causes seasons on Earth?

A. The variation in proximity of the Earth to the sun at different times of the year

B. The variation or wobble of Earth's tilt during the year

C. The distance between the Earth and the sun in winter versus in the summer

D. The constant tilt of the Earth, combined with its orbit around the sun

E. The position of the moon orbiting the earth.

D. The constant tilt of the Earth, combined with its orbit around the sun