VIT 07 PIPE

b. chiller

In Refrigeration, how do you call a heat exchanger in which low-pressure refrigerant boils or vaporizes, thus absorbing heat that was removed from the refrigerated area by the cooling medium (water)?

a. evaporator
b. chiller
c. cooler
d. flooded evaporator

d. flooded refrigeration system

It is a type of refrigeration system where only part of the circulated refrigerant is evaporated, with the remainder being separated from the vapor and then recirculated. How do you call this system?

a. absorption refrigeration system
b. vacuum refrigeration system
c. vapor-compression refrigeration system
d. flooded refrigeration system

b. freeze-up

How do you call the ice formation on a refrigeration system at the expansion device, making the device inoperative?

a. ice formation
b. freeze-up
c. freezing
d. pump-down

a. refrigerant

In a lithium bromide solution absorption refrigeration system, which of the following is the function of water?

a. refrigerant
b. absorbent
c. coolant
d. analyzer

b. analyzer or bubble column

In the absorption refrigeration system, is a pressure vessel mounted above the generator through which the vapor leaving the generator pass. How do you call this component?

a. absorber
b. analyzer
c. rectifier
d. reflux

c. rectifier

In the absorption refrigeration system, it is the inlet part of the condenser, cooled by a separate circuit of cooling water or strong aqua. It condenses a small part of the vapor leaving the bubble column and returns it as a liquid to the top of the baffle plate. This ensures that the vapor going to the condenser is lowered in temperature and enriched in ammonia. What is this component?

a. Reflux
b. analyzer
c. rectifier
d. absorber

a. Reaumur Temperature Scale

which of the following is a scale of temperature in which the melting point of ice is taken as 0° and the boiling point of water is 80°?

a. Reaumur scale
b. Carrene scale
c. Genetron scale
d. Frigorie scale

c. frigorific mixture

How do you call the mixtures or substances that are used in laboratory methods of producing a drop in temperature? The most common example is the mixture of ice and salt.

a. calorific mixture
b. water-ammonia mixture
c. frigorific mixture
d. hygroscopic mixture

b. critical temperature

It is the maximum temperature of any gas or vapor at which it may be condensed into a liquid; above this temperature, it is impossible to condense regardless of the pressure applied. How do you call this temperature?

a. saturation temperature
b. critical temperature
c. superheated temperature
d. dew point temperature

c. vacuum refrigerant

Any refrigerant that exists as a liquid under normal atmospheric pressure and temperature must be vaporized in an evaporator under a pressure below atmospheric. This is sometimes referred to as:

a. halogenated refrigerant
b. freon refrigerant
c. vacuum refrigerant
d. halocarbon refrigerant

a. halogenated refrigerants

It is any one of a group of refrigerants that have been developed since about 1925 to overcome the irritating or toxic effects of refrigerants, such as ammonia and sulfur dioxide and the high condensing pressures required with carbon dioxide. How do you call these refrigerants?

a. halogenated refrigerants
b. freon refrigerants
c. vacuum refrigerants
d. halocarbon refrigerants

b. evaporative condenser

This refrigeration component combines the functions of a cooling tower and a comdenser. It consists of a casing enclosing a fan or blower section, water eliminators, refrigerant condensing coil, water pan, float valve, and spray pump outside the casing. How do you call this component?

a. water-cooled condenser
b. evaporative condenser
c. atmospheric condenser
d. chiller

d. fouling factor

It refers to a factor used in calculating the over-all heat transfer through the tube walls of a condenser tube or other heating surface. It includes the sum of the heat-transfer rate of the layer of dirt and foreign material that builds up on the water side of the tube. What is this factor?

a. cooling factor
b. contact factor
c. By-pass factor
d. fouling factor

a. flooded evaporator

It is a refrigeration system evaporator which is arranged with a tank or a single drum (accumulator) located above the coil so that the inside of the evaporator is full of refrigerant. How do you call this type of evaporator?

a. flooded evaporator
b. dry evaporator
c. cooling coil evaporator
d. headered coil evaporator

b. expansion valve

What is the standardized term used by the industry to describe any device that meters or regulates the flow of liquid refrigerant to an evaporator?

a. refrigerant control
b. expansion valve
c. throttling valve
d. capillary tube

d. the valve of the controlled condition actually maintained under steady state conditions

Define a "control valve".

a. the value set on the scale of the control system in order to obtain the required condition
b. the quantity of condition of the controlled medium
c. the flow or pressure of the steam (or fluid) being manipulated
d. the valve of the controlled condition actually maintained under steady state conditions

c. the steam supply

A pneumatic temperature control is used on the steam supply to a non-storage heat exchanger that heats water serving an office heating system. What is referred to as "manipulated variable"?

a. the water being heated
b. the air signal from the controller to the valve actuator
c. the steam supply
d. the temperature of the air being heated

d. check valve

Which of the following valves is the one designed to allow a fluid to pass through in one direction?

a. globe valve
b. gate valve
c. float valve
d. check valve

b. a magnetic stop valve

How do you classify a solenoid valve?

a. a thermal valve
b. a magnetic stop valve
c. a bellows valve
d. a bi-metallic valve

a. a temperature-operated switch

What is a thermostat?

a. a temperature-operated switch
b. a pressure-operated switch
c. a superheat-operated switch
d. a back pressure-operated switch

d. prevent excessive furnace heat losses

Which of the following is the one of the main purposes of refractory in a boiler furnace?

a. help preheat the air for the furnace
b. help preheat the feed water
c. protect economizer from excessive heat
d. prevent excessive furnace heat losses

c. thermostatic

Balance pressure traps are what type of steam trap?

a. thermodynamic
b. mechanical
c. thermostatic
d. They do not belong to any specific type of trap family

b. they operate by holding back condensate until it has cooled

What is a characteristic feature of thermodynamic steam traps?

a. they pass condensate at steam temperature
b. they operate by holding back condensate until it has cooled
c. they cannot be fitted outside
d. they can only be fitted on low pressure steam systems

b. air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability

What are the main considerations for steam trap selection?

a. price
b. air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability
c. connections
d. the trap must be the same size as the condensate drain line

c. if the pressure on the trap is always higher than back pressure

Can temperature controlled application be trapped?

a. traps should not be fitted under any circumstances
b. only if there is no lift after the trap
c. if the pressure on the trap is always higher than back pressure
d. pumps should always be fitted to remove condensate

b. condensate is removed at steam temperature

Unless they are designed to flood, what is the important when removing condensate from heat exchangers?

a. condensate is allowed to sub-cool before reaching the trap
b. condensate is removed at steam temperature
c. condensate should back-up into the steam pipe
d. that the trap is fitted level with or above the heater outlet

a. from condensate passing from high to low pressure systems

How is flash steam produced?

a. from condensate passing from high to low pressure systems
b. from saturated steam
c. from superheated steam
d. from steam mixed with high temperature air

c. air should be removed as soon as it reaches the trap

Are steam traps required to pass air?

a. steam traps should not pass air under any circumstances
b. only when the trap has passed all the condensate
c. air should be removed as soon as it reaches the trap
d. only on high pressure steam system

d. deluge system

How do you call a system employing open sprinklers attached to a piping system connected to a water supply through which is opened by the operation of a fire detection system installed in the same areas as the sprinklers?

a. mechanical sprinklers
b. automatic system
c. wet pipe system
d. deluge system

d. in the event of power failure, must the valve fail-open or fail-closed?

What is probably the first consideration when selecting a control system?

a. what degree of accuracy is required?
b. is the control for heating or cooling?
c. is a two or three port valve required?
d. in the event of power failure, must the valve fail-open or fail-closed?

C. 55 to 60 %

Which of the following ranges of humidity ratio is used for comfort air conditioning?

A. 50 to 55 %
B. 60 to 65 %
C. 55 to 60 %
D. 45 to 50%

b. low pressure side

When adding the refrigerant in a refrigeration system, it shall be charge into which of the following parts of the system?

a. high pressure side
b. low pressure side
c. low and high pressure side
d. compressor discharge line

c. to reduce the gas content of the water

Why is a boiler feed tank heated to approximately 85 °C?

a. to reduce the energy required to raise steam
b. to reduce the content of total dissolved solids in the water supplied to the boiler
c. to reduce the gas content of the water
d. to reduce the content of suspended solids in the water

a. a separator

What is used to dry air?

a. a separator
b. a strainer
c. a steam trap
d. a tee piece

d. slugs of water in the steam

What causes water hammer in the boiler?

a. suspended water droplets
b. an air/water mixture
c. strainers fitted on their sides
d. slugs of water in the steam

d. both a, b & c

How does air enter a steam system?

a. through joints, on shut down of the steam system
b. with make-up water to the boiler feed tank
c. with condensate entering the boiler feed tank
d. both a, b & c

a. to prevent the build-up of water in the strainer body

Why should strainers installed on steam lines be fitted on their sides?

a. to prevent the build-up of water in the strainer body
b. to trap more dirt
c. to reduce the frequency of cleaning
d. to provide maximum screening area for the steam

a. the true connected heat load may be different from the rated figure

What is the result of using a heat exchanger rating to calculate its steam consumption?

a. the true connected heat load may be different from the rated figure
b. the rating does not take account of the temperature of the secondary medium
c. the rating is based on a steam pressure of 1.0 bar
d. the rating does not allow for condensate forming in the heat exchanger

d. the output would be reduced because the difference in temperature between the steam and product is reduced

A heat exchanger has a design rating based on a working pressure of 7 bar g. What would be the effect of supplying the exchanger with steam at 3 bar g?

a. the heat output would be greater because the enthalpy of evaporation at 3 bar g is higher than at 7 bar g
b. the heat output would be greater because steam at 3 bar g has a greater volume than steam at 7 bar g
c. less weight of steam would be required because steam at 3 bar g has a higher enthalpy of evaporation than 7 bar g
d. the output would be reduced because the difference in temperature between the steam and product is reduced

b. losses from the top are approximately double those from the bottom

For any particular tank temperature how does the heat loss from the lid of a closed tank compare with that of bottom?

a. they are approximately double those from the bottom
b. losses from the top are approximately double those from the bottom
c. losses from the bottom are approximately double those from the top
d. losses from the top are approximately 4 times those from the bottom

d. it dilutes the tank content

What is the disadvantage of heating a tank by direct steam injection?

a. it agitates the solution
b. some of the enthalpy of water is used
c. steam traps are not required
d. it dilutes the tank content

d. centrifugal chiller

The existing 2000 TR chiller at a large hospital, where you are assigned as Engineer, must be replaced. Which of the following types most likely to be installed?

a. screw chiller
b. scroll chiller
c. reciprocating chiller
d. centrifugal chiller

a. compressor work and net refrigeration effect

Refrigeration condensers are rated based upon their ability to reject the total heat that comes from which of the following?

a. compressor work and net refrigeration effect
b. superheating
c. subcooling
d. compressor work

d. when scaling or fouling of the coil takes place

A published 'U' value from a steam coil to a water based solution is given as 550-1300 W/m^2-°C. When would be figure near the lower end of the range be used?

a. When the steam is known to be of good quality
b. for short coils
c. for small diameter coils
d. when scaling or fouling of the coil takes place

a. the tank contains a corrosive solution

Steam coils should enter and leave the top of a tank when:

a. the tank contains a corrosive solution
b. when agitation of the tank solution is required
c. when steam locking the trap draining a base coil could occur
d. when good heat distribution is required

c. 450-1140 kJ/kg-°K

What range of 'U' values would you apply for mild steel jacket around a stainless steel tank containing a water and detergent solution?

a. 285 - 480
b. 450 - 1140
c. 850 - 1700
d. 285 - 850

c. the same amount of heat will be required

A tank is to be heated by direct steam injection. How will the quantity of heat required compare with steam coil heating?

a. it depends on the temperature of the water being heated
b. more heat will be required
c. the same amount of heat will be required
d. less heat will be required

a. wet-bulb temperature

Which of the following parameters has the greatest limiting effect on the thermal performance of an open, evaporative cooling tower?

a. wet-bulb temperature
b. dry-bulb temperature
c. range
d. approach

d. fog

Air enters a cooling tower at 10 °C DB and 9.5 °C WB temperature. It leaves the tower saturated at 21 °C. Which condition is a likely outcome of this?

a. sublimation
b. condensation
c. adsorption
d. fog

a. Zone

It is a space, or several rooms, or units of space having some sort of coincident loads or similar operating characteristics. It may or may not be an enclosed space, or it may consist of many partitioned rooms. How do you call this?

a. Zone
b. Room
c. Space
d. Plenum

c. Space

In air conditioning, it indicates either a volume or a site without a partition or a partitioned room or groups of rooms. How do you call this?

a. Zone
b. Room
c. Space
d. Plenum

C. Room

It is an enclosed or partitioned space that is usually treated as a single load. If conditioned, it often has an individual control system.

A. Zone
B. Space
C. Room
D. Plenum

a. Space heat gain

It represents the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat enters a conditioned space from an external source or is released to the space from an internal source during a given time interval.

a. Space heat gain
b. space cooling load
c. space heating load
d. space heat extraction rate

b. space cooling load

It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W at which heat must be removed from a conditioned space so as to maintain a constant temperature and acceptable relative humidity. It sensible load component is equal to the sum of the convective heat transfer from the surfaces of term-256the building envelope, furnishings, occupants, appliances, and equipment. How do you call this?

a. Space heat gain
b. space cooling load
c. space heating load
d. space heat extraction rate

C. Not valid

An Engineer claims to have created a heat engine that produces 15 kW of power for a 20 kW input while operating between energy reservoirs at 37 C and 400 C. Is the Engineer\`s claim valid?

A. Valid
B. Probably
C. Not valid
D. May be valid

a. metabolism

A process that the body uses to convert energy in food into heat and work, or it is the process that determines the rate at which energy is converted from chemical to thermal form within the body.

a. metabolism
b. eating
c. body food processing
d. blood circulation

c. clothing

What is a body insulation that is usually described as a single equivalent uniform layer over the whole body?

a. skin
b. blood
c. clothing
d. water

b. Clo units

What is the insulating value of clothing?

a. Btu unit
b. Clo units
c. calorie unit
d. frigorie unit

a. 1 clo \=0.880 °F.ft^2.Hr/Btu

Which of the following is the value of clo units?

a. 1 clo \=0.880 °F.ft^2.Hr/Btu
b. 1 clo \= 100 °F.m^2/kW
c. 1 clo \= 0.275 °F.m^2/W
d. 1 clo \= 190 °F.m^2/kW

b. mean radiant temperature

What is the basic index used to describe the radiant conditions in a space, it is the mean temperature of individual; exposed surfaces in the environment?

a. index temperature
b. mean radiant temperature
c. space temperature
d. dry bulb temperature

a. Installation NPSH ≥ pump NPSH

In order to avoid cavitation in a centrifugal pump, which of the following is true?

a. Installation NPSH ≥ pump NPSH
b. Installation NPSH ≤ pump NPSH
c. Installation NPSH < pump NPSH
d. Installation NPSH should be negative

d. a decrease in enthalpy

What always accompanies an isentropic expansion of steam?

a. an increase in entropy
b. an increase in enthalpy
c. a decrease in entropy
d. a decrease in enthalpy

b. hygroscopic materials

Those substance that are particularly variable in the moisture content that they can possess at different times.

a. Wet materials
b. hygroscopic materials
c. gross materials
d. bone-dry-weight material

C. Regain

The hygroscopic moisture content of a substance expressed as a percentage of the bone-dry-weight of the material.

A. Moisture Content
B. Bone-dry-weight
C. Regain
D. Gross Weight

d. it removes more oxygen

What is the advantage of a pressurized deaerator over an atmospheric deaerator?

a. a boiler feed tank is no longer required
b. less over all energy will be required to produce the steam
c. it can be fitted at ground level
d. it removes more oxygen

d. volatile matter

In proximate analysis, the coal analysis is consisting of moisture content, fixed carbon, ash, and which of the following?

a. sulfur
b. hydrogen
c. nitrogen
d. volatile matter

a. higher heating value

How do you call the heating value of the fuel if the water in the products of combustion is in the liquid state?

a. higher heating value
b. lower heating value
c. proximate heating value
d. gravimetric heating value

c. space heating load

What is the rate, in Btu/h or W, at which heat must be added to the conditioned space to maintain a constant temperature and sometimes a specified relative humidity?

a. space heat gain
b. space cooling load
c. space heating load
d. space heat extraction rate

d. space heat extraction rate

Space heat extraction rate Qex, Btu/h (W), is the rate at which heat is actually removed from the conditioned space by the air system. Its sensible heat rate component is equal to the sensible cooling load only when the space air temperature remains constant.

a. space heat gain
b. space cooling load
c. space heating load
d. space heat extraction rate

a. coil load

It is the rate, in Btu/h or W, of heat transfer at the coil. Its cooling load component is the rate at which heat is removed by the chilled water flowing through the coil or is absorbed by the refrigerant inside the coil. What do you call this?

a. coil load
b. heating coil load
c. refrigerating load
d. cooling load

b. heating coil load

It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat is added to the conditioned air from the hot water, steam, or electric heating elements inside the coil.

a. coil load
b. heating coil load
c. refrigerating load
d. cooling load

B. Refrigerating Load

What is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat is absorbed by the refrigerant at the evaporator. For central hydronic systems, it is the sum of the coil load plus the chilled water piping water heat gain, pump power heat gain, and storage tank heat gain. For most water systems in commercial buildings, the water piping and pump power heat gain is only about 5 to 10 percent of the coil load. In an air conditioning system using DX coil(s), it is equal to the DX coil load

A. Coil Load
B. Refrigerating Load
C. Heating Coil Load
D. Cooling Load

b. hygrometer

It is a humidity sensor used to measure relative humidity, dew point, or absolute humidity of ambient or moving air. This device could be mechanical or electronic. How do you call this?

a. hydrometer
b. hygrometer
c. psychrometer
d. barometer

a. automatic valve

It is a device designed to control the flow of steam, water, gas, or other fluids. It can be considered a variable orifice positioned by an actuator in response to impulses or signals from the controller. It may be equipped with either a throttling plug, V-port, or rotating ball specially designed to provide a desired flow characteristic. How do you call this device.

a. automatic valve
b. automatic flow meter
c. thermostat
d. pyrometer

c. close the steam outlet valve from the boiler

Assume that you are checking the water level in a boiler which is on the line in a power plant. Upon opening the gage cocks, you determine that the water level was above the top gage cock. Of the following actions, the best one to take first in this situation would be to:

a. shut-off the fuel and air supply
b. surface-blow the boiler
c. close the steam outlet valve from the boiler
d. increase the speed of the feed water

c. surge tank

It is a component in a hydro plant that absorbs water hammer during load fluctuations and serves as an auxiliary reservoir during high load demands. What is this component?

a. spillway
b. dam
c. surge tank
d. penstock

a. coking or coking coal

It is a bituminous coal that contains plenty of hydrocarbons, forming lumped masses when burned. This coal is ideal for forming carbonaceous gases for reduction of ore. What do you call this coal?

a. coking or coking coal
b. free burning coal
c. peat coal
d. lignite coal

a. fire point

It is the temperature at which the oil vapors will continue to burn when ignited.

a. fire point
b. flash point
c. ignition temperature
d. creep temperature

b. flash point

It is the temperature to which oil has to be heated until sufficient flammable vapor is driven off to flash when brought into momentary contact with a flame. How do you call this temperature?

a. fire point
b. flash point
c. ignition temperature
d. creep temperature

a. bloom

The color of a lubricating oil is obtained by reference to transmitted light; the color by reflected light is referred to as:

a. bloom
b. reflection
c. deflection
d. residue

c. carbon residue

How do you call the material left after heating an oil under specified conditions at high temperature, and is useful as a quality control tool in the refining of viscous oils, particularly residual oils?

a. ash
b. color
c. carbon residue
d. coke

a. cloud point

Petroleum oils, when cooled, may become plastic solids, either from wax formation or from the fluid congealing. With some oils, the initial wax crystal formation becomes visible at temperatures slightly above the solidification point. When that temperature is reached at specific test conditions, it is known as the

a. cloud point
b. pour point
c. creep point
d. flash point

b. pour point

It is the temperature at which cooled oil will just flow under specific test conditions; and it indicates the lowest temperature at which a lubricant can readily flow from its container. How do you call this temperature?

a. cloud point
b. pour point
c. creep point
d. flash point

d. neutralization number and total acid number

It is a term indicating the measure of acidic components in oils; and was original intent to indicate the degree of refining in new oils, and to follow the development of oxidation in service, with its effects on deposit formation and corrision. What is this?

a. neutralization number
b. total acid number
c. total base number
d. neutralization number and total acid number

c. total base number

How do you call a meassure of alkaline components in oils, especially those additives used in engine oils to neutralize acids formed during fuel combustion?

a. neutralization number
b. total acid number
c. total base number
d. neutralization number and total acid number

c. solid lubricants

These are materials with low coefficients of friction compared to metals, and they are used to reduce friction and wear in a variety of applications. There are a large number of such materials, and they include graphite, molybdenum disulfide, polytetrafluoroethylene, talc, graphite fluoride, polymers, and certain metal salts. How do you call these materials?

a. greases
b. liquid lubricants
c. solid lubricants
d. powder lubricants

b. dispersants

These are engine oil additives used to help keep the engine clean by solubilizing and dispersing sludge, soot, and deposit precursors. How do you call these oil additives?

a. detergents
b. dispersants
c. oxidation inhibitors
d. corrosion inhibitors

d. corrosion inhibitors

How do you call these engine oil additives used to prevent attack on sensitive bearing metals?

a. detergents
b. dispersants
c. oxidation inhibitors
d. corrosion inhibitors

a. detergents

These are engine oil additives used to prevent or reduce deposits and corrosion by neutralizing combustion by-product acids. What are these additives?

a. detergents
b. dispersants
c. oxidation inhibitors
d. corrosion inhibitors

a. adhesion

What is the molecular attraction of layers of an unlike matters?

a. adhesion
b. cohesion
c. advection
d. convection

d. rust inhibitors

How do you call these engine oil additives used to prevent attack on iron and steel surfaces by condensed moisture and acidic corrosion products, aggravated by low-temperature stop-and-go operation?

a. detergents
b. dispersants
c. oxidation inhibitors
d. rust inhibitors

a. viscosity-index improvers

How do you call these engine oil additives used to help enable adequate low-temperature flow, along with sufficient viscosity at high temperature?

a. viscosity-index improvers
b. pour point dispersants
c. oxidation inhibitors
d. rust inhibitors

a. anti-wear additives

These oil additives are used to minimize wear under boundary lubrication conditions, such as cam and lifter, and cylinder-wall and piston-ring surfaces.

a. anti-wear additives
b. pour point dispersants
c. oxidation inhibitors
d. rust inhibitors

b. defoamants

These are engine oil additives used to allow air to break away easily from the oil.

a. anti-wear additives
b. defoamants
c. oxidation inhibitors
d. rust inhibitors

b. friction modifiers

These engine oil additives are used to improve fuel efficiency by reducing friction at rubbing surfaces. How do you call these oil additives?

a. anti-wear additives
b. friction modifiers
c. oxidation inhibitors
d. rust inhibitors

c. fumarole

How do you call an opening where hot source of energy from the earth is harnessed?

a. crater
b. hot water source
c. fumarole
d. volcano opening

a. 336 m/s

At standard atmospheric conditions, what is the approximate speed of sound?

a. 336 m/s
b. 363 m/s
c. 633 m/s
d. 346 m/s

b. acoustic velocity

The speed of sound is also called as:

a. sound velocity
b. acoustic velocity
c. subsonic velocity
d. critical velocity

a. sonic velocity

This is the velocity at which a small pressure wave moves through a fluid. How do you call this velocity?

a. sonic velocity
b. subsonic velocity
c. supersonic velocity
d. hypersonic velocity

a. 2.998x10^8m/s

Which of the followin is the speed of light

a. 2.998x10^8m/s
b. 2.998x10^9
c. 2.998x10^10m/s
d. 2.998x10^7m/s