Pharmaceutical Dosage Forms

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100 Terms

1
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The most famous surviving memorials of early drugs with more than 800 formulas or prescriptions is
A. De Materia Medica
B. Galen’s Formula
C. Papyrus Ebers
D. Pharmacopeia
C. Papyrus Ebers
2
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One of the Galen’s famous formula is known as:
A. Galen’s ointment
B. Galen’s cream
C. Galen’s suppository
D. Galen’s cerate
D. Galen’s cerate
3
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The label of OTC drugs contain
I. Pharmacologic category
II. Rx symbol
III. Dosage form

A. I, II and III
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I only
C. I and III
4
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A _____ is defined as any agent intended for use in the diagnosis, mitigation, cure, treatment, or prevention of
disease in man or in other animals.
A. Substance
B. Article
C. Dosage form
D. Drug
D. Drug
5
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Amount administered to a patient after exposure or contraction of the illness
A. Prophylactic dose
B. Therapeutic dose
C. Maintenance dose
D. Minimum effective concentration
B. Therapeutic dose
6
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The following are parts of the monograph EXCEPT
A. Pharmacologic category
B. Statement of chemical purity
C. Official title
D. CAS registry number
A. Pharmacologic category
7
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The following are drugs from plant sources EXCEPT
A. Reserpine
B. Paclitaxel
C. Insulin
D. Vincristine
C. Insulin
8
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Information found in the package insert include all the following EXCEPT
A. Contraindication
B. Warning
C. Clinical protocol
D. How supplied
C. Clinical protocol
9
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The purpose of Phase 3 clinical trial is
A. Mainly for safety
B. For short term safety, but mainly effectiveness
C. For safety, effectiveness and dosage
D. Post-marketing surveillance
C. For safety, effectiveness and dosage
10
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A chemical compound that has a fundamental desired biologic or pharmacologic activity is referred to as
A. Prodrug
B. Lead compound
C. Goal drug
D. All of these
B. Lead compound
11
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Which of the following is NOT a product of genetic engineering?
a. Human insulin
b. Home pregnancy testing kit
c. Interferon
d. Paclitaxel
D. Paclitaxel
12
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It is used to gain approval to market a duplicate product to one that had been approved previously and marketed
by the pioneer
A. Supplemental New Drug Application
B. Abbreviated New Drug Abbreviation
C. “Treatment Investigational New Drug Application”
D. New Animal Drug Application
B. Abbreviated New Drug Abbreviation
13
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Which of the following statements is correct?
I. A drug product label includes package inserts
II. Phases I, II and III of clinical trials are conducted using animal subjects
III. Revision of USP/NF is every 5 years

A. I, II and III
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I and II
E. III only
C. I and III
14
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These substances are used to prevent the drying out of preparations due to the agent’s ability to retain moisture
A. Levigating agent
B. Humectants
C. Plasticizer
D. Antioxidant
E. Occluding agent
B. Humectants
15
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Cocoa butter is used as a base in the manufacture of
A. Capsule
B. Suppositories
C. Pills
D. Tablets
B. Suppositories
16
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Parabens are used in syrups as:
A. Buffer
B. Thickener
C. Preservative
D. Sweetener
C. Preservative
17
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The bitter taste of drugs is best concealed by
A. Citrus flavor
B. Cocoa flavor
C. Raspberry flavor
D. Mint flavor
B. Cocoa flavor
18
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The disadvantage of Sodium saccharin as a sweetening agent is:
A. Less sweet than sucrose
B. It has carcinogenic potential
C. Contraindicated to phenylketonurics
D. Bitter after-taste
D. Bitter after-taste
19
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Characteristics of Stevia powder include
I. A natural, non-toxic sweetener
II. Contraindicated to phenylketonurics
III. About 30 times sweeter than sucrose

A. Only I
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III
C. I and III
20
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Which of the following dosage forms are designed to conceal the bitter, salty or offensive taste or odor of a drug
substance?
I. Capsules
II. Coated tablets
III. Flavored syrups

A. Only I
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. I, II and III
D. I, II and III
21
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This chemical agent is used to render capsules opaque
A. Titanium dioxide
B. Sorbitol
C. Magnesium oxide
D. Silica
E. Lactose
A. Titanium dioxide
22
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FD&C yellow no. 5
I. Also known as tartrazine
II. Can cause hypersensitivity reaction
III. Now permitted as colorant for externally applied products

A. I and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
B. I and II
23
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Products requiring colorants include
I. Ointments
II. Compressed tablets
III. Capsules

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
D. II and III
24
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Which of the following is NOT an antioxidant?
A. Alphatocopherol
B. Butylhydroxyanisole
C. Benzoic acid
D. Ascorbic acid
C. Benzoic acid
25
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Self-sterilizing preparations include
I. Tinctures
II. Spirits
III. Elixirs

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
26
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The following are examples of single dose parenteral containers EXCEPT
A. Fusion-sealed ampuls
B. Pre-filled syringes
C. Cartridges
D. 30ml capacity vials
D. 30ml capacity vials
27
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The release of an ingredient from the packaging component into the contents is best described by the term:
A. Sorption
B. Leaching
C. Permeation
D. Diffusion
B. Leaching
28
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Type II glass container is
I. Highly resistant borosilicate
II. Can be used as container for parenterals
III. Treated soda lime glass

A. I and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
C. II and III
29
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Photodegradation can be prevented by packaging drugs in a light resistant container. Which of the following containers is NOT light resistant?
A. Colorless bottle covered with aluminum foil
B. Plastic container
C. Amber colored bottle
D. Bottle covered with carbon paper
B. Plastic container
30
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This plastic material is rigid and has good clarity thus, is used in blister packaging of capsules and tablets is
A. PET
B. PVC
C. PETG
D. APET
B. PVC
31
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Single dose parenteral container
I. Is a hermetic container
II. Ampul
III. Permits withdrawal of successive portions of the contents

A. I and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
B. I and II
32
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The temperature of a cold place is
A. 8°C-15°C
B. Not exceeding 8°C
C. 15°C-30°C
D. 25°C
B. Not exceeding 8°C
33
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Based on USP guidelines the stability of extemporaneously compounded aqueous liquids (reconstituted formulation) is
A. A beyond use date of not later than 25% of the time remaining until the products’ expiration date or 6 months, whichever is earlier
B. Not later than 14 days when stored at cold temperatures
C. Not less than the intended duration of therapy or 30 days, whichever is earlier
D. Maximum beyond use date is 6 months or 25% of the remaining time between the compounding date and the shortest expiration date of the ingredients, whichever is earlier
B. Not later than 14 days when stored at cold temperatures
34
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______ stability is important for selecting storage condition, proper container and for anticipating interactions when mixing drugs.
A. Physical
B. Chemical
C. Microbiological
D. Therapeutic
B. Chemical
35
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An approach to stabilize preparations against hydrolytic decomposition EXCEPT
A. Removal of water
B. Use of buffering agent
C. Use of anti-oxidant
D. Supplying the drug in dry form for reconstitution
C. Use of anti-oxidant
36
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Geometric dilution:
I. Is employed in comminuting powders
II. Is employed in mixing small amount of potent drug with a large amount of diluents
III. Can be performed when trituration method of mixing powder is used

A. I, II and III are correct
B. I and III are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. Only I is correct
C. II and III are correct
37
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A comminution process where a suitable agent, usually a non-solvent, is added to the powder to form a paste then rubbing or grinding the paste in a mortar.
A. Trituration
B. Pulverization with intervention
C. Levigation
D. Sieving
C. Levigation
38
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Powders disperse and dissolve more readily than compacted dosage forms because
A. They contain disintegrants
B. Are better lubricated
C. Have a greater surface area
D. Flow better
C. Have a greater surface area
39
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Divided powders are also known as
A. Parvules
B. Boluses
C. Chartulae
D. Cachets
C. Chartulae
40
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Statements concerning bulk powders
I. Oral powders are mixed with water or other beverages before swallowing
II. Douche powders are dissolved in warm water for vaginal use
III. Dusting powders include topical anti-infectives, antifungals and antiperspirants

A. I, II and III are correct
B. I and III are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. Only II is correct
A. I, II and III are correct
41
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Finely divided powders introduced into the body cavities such as ears, nose, throat, tooth sockets and vagina.
I. Dusting powder
II. Douche powder
III. Insufflation

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
A. I only
42
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Effervescent granulated salts usually contain
A. Sodium bicarbonate, potassium citrate and sodium tartrate
B. Sodium bicarbonate, citric acid and tartaric acid
C. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate and tartaric acid
D. Carbonic acid, potassium citrate and potassium tartrate
B. Sodium bicarbonate, citric acid and tartaric acid
43
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The gas evolved when effervescent powders dissolve in water is
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Water Vapor
B. Carbon dioxide
44
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Which of the following products are not classified as dispensed powder and granules?
A. Dentrifices
B. Douches
C. Insufflations
D. Lozenges
D. Lozenges
45
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Which is a major advantage of powders and granules?
A. Bulk powder is easily carried by patients
B. They are more stable than liquid preparations
C. They can mask unpleasant tastes
D. They are good for dispensing hygroscopic and deliquescent drugs
46
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Efflorescent powders when triturated or stored in low humidity release
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Water
C. Dust
D. Bad smells
B. Water
47
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Triturations are dilutions of potent powdered drugs prepared by intimately mixing them with a suitable diluent in a definite proportion by weight. The proportion of the potent drug to the diluent is
A. 1:20
B. 1:2
C. 1:10
D. 1:100
C. 1:10
48
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Soft gelatin capsules
I. Are used to hermetically seal and encapsulate liquids, suspensions, and pasty materials
II. Render elastic and plastic-like by adding titanium dioxide
III. Contain more moisture than hard gelatin capsule

A. I, II and III are correct
B. I and III are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. Only III is correct
B. I and III are correct
49
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This substance is added to soft gelatin capsule to render it elastic or plastic-like
A. Glycerin
B. Gelatin
C. Sugar
D. Water
A. Glycerin
50
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Hard gelatin capsules are
I. Commonly employed in clinical trials
II. In small scale compounding, pharmacist uses “punch method”
III. Can be prepared by rotary die process

A. I, II and III are correct
B. I and II are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. Only III is correct
B. I and II are correct
51
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Characteristics of added substances to capsule formulation
I. Harmless in quantities used
II. Do not interfere with requisite compendial assays and tests
III. Do not impair product’s bioavailability, therapeutic efficacy or safety

A. I, II and III are correct
B. I and III are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. Only I is correct
A. I, II and III are correct
52
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TRUE statements regarding capsule excipients include
I. Lactose is a common diluent
II. Sodium lauryl sulfate is used as surface-active agent
III. Magnesium stearate is used as a disintegrant

A. I, II and III are correct
B. I and II are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. Only III is correct
B. I and II are correct
53
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When preparing hard gelatin capsules, the formulator is not generally concerned with
A. Powder blending and homogeneity
B. Powder flow
C. Powder lubrication
D. Powder compaction
D. Powder compaction
54
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Flavoring agents are usually added to
I. Buccal tablets
II. Film-coated tablets
III. Chewable tablets

A. I, II and III are correct
B. I and III are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. Only III is correct
B. I and III are correct
55
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A tablet which is 50% larger and heavier than the original uncoated one is
A. Sugar-coated tablet
B. Film-coated tablet
C. Enteric-coated tablet
D. Chocolate-coated tablet
A. Sugar-coated tablet
56
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Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
A. Claritin Reditabs – Instant disintegrating tablet
B. Minidiab-OD – Extended-release tablet
C. Nitrostat – Tablet for oral ingestion
D. Neozep – Multiple-compressed tablet
E. Bonamine – Chewable tablet
C. Nitrostat – Tablet for oral ingestion
57
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Disc-shaped solid dosage form containing a hard candy base to be dissolved slowly in the mouth
A. Cachet
B. Parvules
C. Pills
D. Lozenges
D. Lozenges
58
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Which of the following is a troche?
A. Fentanyl Actiq
B. Dequadin
C. Alaxan-FR
D. Clusivol
E. Zantac-15
B. Dequadin
59
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True statements about the function of excipients used in tablet formulation EXCEPT
A. Binders promote granulation
B. Glidants promote the flow of the tablet granulation
C. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet
D. Diluents make up the desired bulk of the tablet formulation
C. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet
60
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Dulcolax™ tablet is
A. Sugar-coated
B. Enteric-coated
C. Film-coated
D. Multiple-compressed
B. Enteric-coated
61
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An excipient used in sugar-free chewable tablet is
A. Sucrose
B. Mannitol
C. Glycerin
D. Xylitol
D. Xylitol
62
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Tablet for oral ingestion
I. Acetaminophen tablet
II. Alkaselter
III. Poten-cee

A. I, II and III are correct
B. I and III are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. Only III is correct
B. I and III are correct
63
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Advantages of film-coating over sugar-coating include:
I. More durable
II. Less bulky
III. Less time consuming to apply

A. I, II and III are correct
B. I and III are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. Only I is correct
A. I, II and III are correct
64
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This tablet is originally used by physician in extemporaneous preparation of parenteral solutions
A. Molded tablet
B. Hypodermic tablet
C. Dispensing tablet
D. Tablet triturate
B. Hypodermic tablet
65
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Uncoated, bullet or ovoid-shaped tablets intended for localized effect
A. Sugar-coated tablet
B. Multiple-compressed tablet
C. Effervescent tablet
D. Vaginal tablet
D. Vaginal tablet
66
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Which method of tablet manufacture can be used to combine two incompatible substance in the same tablet
A. Sugar-coating
B. Film-coating
C. Enteric-coating
D. Multilayer compression
D. Multilayer compression
67
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Increase amount of this capsule/tablet excipient reduces wetting of particles thus slowing dissolution
A. Surface-active agent
B. Disintegrant
C. Lubricant
D. Diluent
C. Lubricant
68
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True statements for pills include:
I. Small, round, solid dosage forms containing medicinal agents and are orally administered
II. Replaced today by compressed tablets and capsules
III. Placed in the mouth, where they dissolve slowly for local effect

A. I, II and III
B. I and III
C. I and III
D. I and II
E. Only I
D. I and II
69
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Solid dosage administered other than oral route
I. Pellets
II. Troches
III. Lollipops

A. Only I is correct
B. I and III are correct
C. I and II are correct
D. I, II and III are correct
A. Only I is correct
70
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Lozenges usually do not contain the following tableting excipient
A. Sucrose
B. Cross-linked povidone
C. Lactose
D. Gelatin
B. Cross-linked povidone
71
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Complete mixing of magnesium stearate with tablet granules will
A. Decrease the crushing strength of tablets
B. Increase tablet hardness
C. Increase tablet dissolution
D. Increase tablet disintegration
A. Decrease the crushing strength of tablets
72
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Which of the following factors does not influence the speed of drug dissolution from tablets?
A. Particle size of the drug
B. Solubility of the drug
C. Tablet hardness
D. Weight uniformity
D. Weight uniformity
73
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The rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid when the drug is formulated as a
A. Controlled-release product
B. Hard gelatin capsule
C. Solution
D. Suspension
E. Compressed tablet
A. Controlled-release product
74
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To what type of modified release formulation enteric coated tablet belongs?
A. Delayed-action
B. Controlled-release
C. Sustained-action
D. Extended-action
A. Delayed-action
75
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Dose dumping is
I. A problem in the formulation of modified release products
II. The abrupt, uncontrolled release of a large dose of drug from a controlled-release product
III. Prevented by chewing or cutting a controlled release tablet
A. I, II and III are correct
B. I and II are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. Only II is correct
B. I and II are correct
76
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Characteristic of drug substances best suited for incorporation into an extended-release product include:
I. Uniformly absorbed from the GIT
II. Possess a good margin of safety
III. Used in the treatment of acute rather than chronic condition

A. Only I is correct
B. I and III are correct
C. I and II are correct
D. I, II and III are correct
C. I and II are correct
77
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Microencapsulation is
I. A process by which solids, liquids, or even gases maybe encapsulated into microscopic size
II. The technology employed in Micro-K Extencaps
III. Formed by applying a thin coating of “wall” material around the substance being encapsulated

A. Only I is correct
B. I and III are correct
C. I and II are correct
D. I, II and III are correct
D. I, II and III are correct
78
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Correct statements about repeat-action tablets include
I. The tablet may be prepared with immediate-release dose in the tablet’s outer shell
II. The tablet’s second dose is in the inner core
III. An example of this type of product is the GITS

A. Only I is correct
B. I and III are correct
C. I and II are correct
D. I, II and III are correct
C. I and II are correct
79
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Which of the following is NOT an oral osmotic pump delivery system?
A. Oramorph SR
B. Glucotrol XL
C. Procardia XL
D. Covera-HS
A. Oramorph SR
80
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Spansule capsule is
I. An example of extended-release product prepared by embedding drug in a slowly eroding hydrophilic matrix system
II. A capsule containing beads of different coating thickness
III. A half-colored, half-transparent hard gelatin capsule containing colored beads or granules

A. Only III is correct
B. I and III are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. I, II and III are correct
A. Only III is correct
81
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Which of the following extended-release dosage form is prepared by embedding the drug in an inert plastic matrix?

A. Ferro-Gradumet
B. Tussionex Pennkinetic Suspension
C. Diamox Sequels
D. Oramorph SR tablet
A. Ferro-Gradumet
82
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Lacrisert is
I. An extended-release ocular insert
II. Used for the treatment of dry eyes
III. Release medication over a 7-day period

A. I and II are correct
B. I and III are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. I, II and III are correct
A. I and II are correct
83
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Osmotically controlled system include
I. Glucotrol XL
II. Feosol Spansule
III. Adalat GITS

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and III
D. II and III
e. I, II, III
C. I and III
84
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Transdermal drug delivery systems (TDDS)
I. Facilitate the passage of therapeutic quantities of drug substances through the skin into the systemic circulation
II. Often called “transdermal patches”
III. Avoid first-pass effect

A. Only I is correct
B. I and III are correct
C. I and II are correct
D. I, II and III are correct
D. I, II and III are correct
85
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Transderm-Nitro Therapeutic System
I. Is an example of monolithic system
II. Is used to treat and prevent angina
III. Delivers nitroglycerin for 24 hours after application

A. Only II is correct
B. II and III are correct
C. I and III are correct
D. I, II and III are correct
B. II and III are correct
86
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A TDDS used to prevent travel related motion sickness is

A. Transdermal Scopolamine
B. Transdermal Clonidine
C. Transdermal Nicotine
D. Transdermal Estradiol
A. Transdermal Scopolamine
87
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Nicotine transdermal delivery system

A. Testoderm
B. Deponit
C. Habitrol
D. Transderm-Scop
C. Habitrol
88
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Correct statement about Catapres TTs include
I. The first transdermal patch to receive FDA approval
II. Worn in a hairless area behind the ear
III. Provides controlled release of clonidine for 7 days

A. I, II and III
B. I and III
C. I and II
D. III only
D. III only
89
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The following statements are correct EXCEPT

A. Only potent drugs are suitable candidate for transdermal activity
B. Transdermal patches are controlled-release products
C. Repetab is a delayed-release tablet
D. Sustained-release parenteral systems are commonly administered by intramuscular injection
C. Repetab is a delayed-release tablet
90
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Drug readily absorbed in the skin and administered via transdermal route include
I. Nitroglycerin
II. Clonidine
III. Scopolamine

A. Only I is correct
B. I and III are correct
C. I and II are correct
D. I, II and III are correct
D. I, II and III are correct
91
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A drug delivery system for the treatment of advanced prostatic cancer is
A. Depo-Provera
B. Zoladex implant
C. Physostigmine TDDS
D. Estring
E. Crinone gel
B. Zoladex implant
92
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Clinical considerations in the use of TDDS include
I. Should be placed at a site that will subject it to being rubbed off by clothing or movement
II. Wet or moist skin can accelerate drug permeation beyond the intended rate
III. Use of skin lotions should be avoided at the application site because they affect skin hydration and can also alter the partition coefficient between the drug in the TDDS and the skin

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
D. II and III
93
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Which of the following is a correct statement regarding TDDS?

A. Ortho Evra is a testosterone transdermal system
B. Skin lotion may be used at the application site of transdermal patches to avoid irritation
C. Physical exercise and extreme ambient temperature (e.g. sauna) may increase the absorption of drug from nitroglycerin patch
D. Absorption of drug from TDDS is greater if the patch is applied to a site with a thick horny layer
C. Physical exercise and extreme ambient temperature (e.g. sauna) may increase the absorption of drug from nitroglycerin patch
94
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Ointment base classified as hydrocarbon base include
I. Petrolatum
II. White ointment
III. Polyethylene Glycol Ointment

A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. III only
E. I, II and III
B. I and II
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Ointment bases that resemble cream in appearance

A. Hydrocarbon bases
B. Water soluble base
C. Absorption base
D. Water removable base
E. Oleaginous base
D. Water removable base
96
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True statements about levigation includes
I. Allows both particle size reduction and dispersion of the substance in vehicle
II. Glycerin is the levigating agent for bases where water is the external phase
III. The amount of the levigating agent should be about equal in volume to the solid material

A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II only
E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
97
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Which of the following statements is true?
I. Vanishing cream is a without emulsion containing small amounts of water
II. Creams find primary application in topical skin products and in products used rectally and vaginally
III. Ointments are preferred more by patients due to ease of spreadability

A. I only
B. I and II
C. II only
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
C. II only
98
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Zinc oxide paste is
I. A very firm product used to protect the skin and absorbs serous secretions
II. Prepared by levigating and mixing 25% each of zinc oxide and starch with white petrolatum
III. Also known as Lassar’s Plain Zinc Paste

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
99
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These are solid or semi-solid adhesive masses spread upon a backing material of paper, fabric, moleskin or plastic
A. Creams
B. Paste
C. Plasters
D. Lotion
B. Paste
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Cold cream is
I. An O/W type cream
II. Petrolatum rose water ointment
III. An emulsion

A. Only I is correct
B. II and III are correct
C. I and II are correct
D. I, II and III are correct
C. I and II are correct