Immunology Exam 2- highlighted

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131 Terms

1
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by taking shots for their allergies the patient could develop

tolerance for the allergen

2
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localized areas of painful erythema and
hard swelling (induration); Lasts approximately 24 hours

arthus reaction

3
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patients who receive foreign serum or some medications

serum sickness

4
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Autoantibodies and TH17 cells specific for thyroid antigens

thyroperoxidase

5
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Inflammation triggers

goiter

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Binding of Ab interferes with iodine uptake and the production of thyroid hormone

hyperthyroidism

7
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secreted free light chains (κ or λ); detected in blood and urine and are diagnostic

Bence Jones proteins

8
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innate and adaptive immune responses detect and destroy tumors

elimination

9
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Innate and adaptive immune responses detect and destroy tumors

equilbrium

10
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Tumor cells spread to other sites and lead to clinically apparent disease

escape

11
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antibody excess

prozone effect

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antigen excess

postzone effect

13
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what examples of killing microorganisms or inactivated viruses

Salk inactivated polio vaccine (IPV), rabies vaccine, Influenza (Flu shot)

14
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Live-attenuated vaccines are mutant forms of what type of pathogens

live

15
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Purified single or mixed components, e.g., proteins & polysaccharides

subunit vaccines

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what are examples of subunit vaccines

toxoids

17
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Immediate—antibody-mediated happens within seconds to hours of

second contact with allergen

18
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Allergen elicits what type of antibody response upon sensitization

IgE antibody

19
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Mast cell degranulation occurs within seconds—smooth muscle contractions, increases capillary permeability
, etc

early phase of hypersensitivity reaction

20
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Eosinophils, PMNs, macrophages arrive and
degranulate—second release of mediators

late phase of hypersensitivity reaction

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what does the early phase of hypersensitivity reactions include

mast cells

22
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what does the late phase of hypersensitivity reactions include

eosinophils

23
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what are examples of being atopic

asthma and food allergies

24
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measures antigenic specific IGe

Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)

25
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measures total serum IgE

Radioimmunosorbent test (RIST)

26
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repeated injections of the allergen

desensitization

27
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what might a patient develop if they are constantly given shots for their allergies

a tolerance

28
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Donor blood group antigens not compatible with recipient; Anti-A and/or Anti-B IgM antibodies bind to and lead to destruction of donor RBCs

acute hemolytic transfusion reactions

29
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a medical condition in which a baby's red blood cells are destroyed by antibodies produced by the mother's immune system, often due to Rh or ABO blood group incompatibility; happens in second pregnancy

Hemolytic disease of the newborn

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a condition in which certain medications trigger the destruction of red blood cells, leading to a decrease in the body's ability to transport oxygen

Drug-induced hemolytic anemia

31
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Deposition of circulating immune complexes (antigen-antibody complexes) in tissues, Accumulation in the skin, joints, blood vessel walls, lung alveoli, and kidney glomeruli

Type III or Immune Complex

32
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localized areas of painful erythema and
hard swelling (induration)

Arthus reaction

33
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patients who receive foreign serum or some medications

serum sickness

34
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IgM, IgG, and IgA against IgG Fc; Anti-citrullinated protein antibodies (ACPAs, anti-CCP

Rheumatoid Arthritis

35
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Cell-mediated hypersensitivity involves what

T cells (CD4 and CD8)

36
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Cell-mediated hypersensitivity happens as a response Response initiated by CD4+ T cells when they recognize and bind foreign antigen presented on MHC II by APCs – APC secretes IL-12 causing T cell differentiation into

Th1 cells

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for CD8+ T cells (CTLs) Antigens where are presented on MHC I to CTL (e.g. intracellular infections)

inside the cell

38
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Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome involves Loss of/impairment of cell signaling and

actin cytoskeleton function

39
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what leads to inadequate/no response to DNA double strand breaks (DSBs)

Mutations in ATM gene

40
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autoantibodies to host cell surface or extracellular matrix

type 2 hypersensitivity reactions

41
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soluble immune complexes deposit in tissues

type 3 hypersensitivity reactions

42
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autoimmunity caused by effector T cells

type 4 hypersensitivity reactions

43
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Stimulation of B cells that make IgM, IgG, or IgA to the Fc region of IgG

Pathogenesis

44
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Pathogenesis contain autoantibodies called

rheumatoid factor

45
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structural similarities between a microorganism and self-antigens

Molecular mimicry

46
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what is an example of molecular mimicry

myelin basic protein

47
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Autoantibodies and TH17 cells specific for thyroid antigens

thyroperoxidase

48
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Inflammation triggers

goiter

49
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swelling of thyroid gland

goiter

50
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Binding of Ab interferes with iodine uptake and the production of thyroid hormones

hypothyroidism

51
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what a risk factor of Ankylosing Spondylitis

HLA-B27

52
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Anti-glomerular basement membrane disease affects the

kidneys and lungs

53
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autoantibodies that specifically target the collagen found in the glomerular basement membrane are called what and their presence can lead to what

Anti-GBM antibodies, Glomerulonephritis

54
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acute renal failure

Glomerulonephritis

55
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what goes to human RBC I antigen

IgM

56
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during paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria whatIgG coats RBCs at cold temperature (extremities) but lyses RBCs at 37oC (core) (biphasic hemolysin

IgG

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during warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia, what coats RBCs at 37oC and cells are lysed

IgG

58
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what are examples of direct antiglobulin test that are polyspecific followed by monospecific

DAT; Direct Coombs test

59
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the measurement of light transmitted through a suspension of particles

turbidimetry

60
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a direct measurement of light scattered by particles suspended in solution

Nephelometry

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what are the steps of principle

sensitization and lattice

62
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Passive (indirect) agglutination is partially coated with what

Ag

63
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during reverse passive agglutination, what is attached to a carrier particle

Ab

64
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an example of Antibody detection is

hemagglutination inhibition

65
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labeled antibody tests has labels that are

fluorescent enzyme, chemiluminescent, and radioactive

66
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Detect antigens in tissue sample or cell suspension on a slide using an antigen-specific fluorescent labeled Ab

Direct fluorescent antibody tests

67
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the labeled antibody is the what

conjugate

68
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Detect unlabeled, primary patient antibody in sample using fluorescent-labeled secondary antibody, anti-immunoglobulin

Indirect fluorescent antibody tet to detect antibody

69
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unlabled antibody is

patient serum

70
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labeled anti-immunoglobin is

conjugate

71
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Capture or sandwich immunoassay: detects what

antigens or antibodies

72
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Signal inversely proportional to antibody concentration

Competitive immunoassay for antibody

73
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for labeled antibody tests, you have to Incubate patient sample with

anti-drug Ab

74
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binds free enzyme-labeled drug

anti drug Ab

75
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immunoblotting, used to detect and analyze specific proteins in a biological sample by separating them based on size and then identifying them using antibodies

western blotting

76
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how are antibodies detected

by using labeled anti-human antibody

77
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during a dot blot (immunoblot) the antigen is added where and not where

added directly onto membrane filter, not separated electrophoretically

78
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Assay to detect specific

antibody

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a laboratory procedure or test used to measure and analyze the presence, quantity, quality, or activity of a substance (such as a chemical compound, biological molecule, or microorganism) in a sample

assay

80
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in a complement fixation test, what is used to detect an Ab of interest

complement is used as a reagent

81
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test system of complement fixation test’s test system is

Ag plus Ab

82
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IgG or IgM to lipids released from damaged host cells during infection

Flocculation reaction with reagin

83
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syphillis serology is not intended for routine screening, used for

confirmation of reactive RPR or VDRL

84
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If blood is present in Cerebrospinal fluid testing for neurosyphilis then

reject sample

85
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secreted free light chains (κ or λ); detected in blood and urine and are diagnostic

Bence Jones proteins

86
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encompass the most common signs of MM

crab criteria

87
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hypercalcemia

calcium

88
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low creatinine clearance

Renal insufficiency

89
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low hemoglobin

anemia

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detected on radiography or CT

bone lessions

91
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Many symptoms of Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia are due to what

hyperviscosity syndrome

92
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Transplantation from one species to a different species (e.g. animal to human

xenograft

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Transplantation from one individual to a genetically non-identical recipient and most common

Allograft

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Transplantation from one individual to a genetically identical recipient (e.g. identical twins)

isograft

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Transplantation from one site of an individual to another site of the same individual

autograft

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Graft vs. Host Disease is prevented by what

irridation

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Tumor (immune) surveillance theory of

Paul Ehrlich

98
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Alpha-fetoprotein AFP-secreting tumors are seen in

hepatocellular carcinoma

99
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Carcinoembryonic antigen CEA-secreting tumors are seen in

colorectal carcinoma

100
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Prostate-­specific antigen (PSA) is often elevated in

prostate cancer