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Which of the following describes cellular respiration?
It is an oxidative catabolic activity
Which of the following types of tissues functions in the covering, lining, and protection of surfaces and body cavities?
Epithelial Tissue
The respiratory system is composed of organs that facilitate gas exchange between the blood and the external environment. Which of the following describes the group of organs that function during gas exchange?
Organ System
White blood cells contain many _________ because they need to dispose of harmful intruders such as bacteria and viruses. Which of the following options correctly completes the statement above?
lysosomes
Which of the following organ systems is correctly paired with its function?
A. Cardiovascular / providing the first layer of protection from outside pathogens
B. Integumentary / obtaining nutrients necessary for growth, energy, and normal body processes
C.Gastrointestinal / transport substances to all tissues of the body
D. Endocrine / regulation of homeostasis through hormone signaling
Endocrine / regulation of homeostasis through hormone signaling
Which of the following correctly describes anatomical position?
Upright, arms at sides, palms facing anteriorly
HIV is a virus that destroys the body’s defense against diseases by inserting itself into the host’s DNA. In which part of the infected host cell will HIV virus be found?
Nucleus
Osteoblasts are specialized cells that secrete the protein collagen and other substances necessary for bone formation. Which of the following organelles is more likely to be predominant in osteoblasts?
Ribosomes
Which of the following is the correct order of structures from simple to most complex
A. Mitochondria, nerve tissues, neurons, brain
B. Brain, neurons, mitochondria, nerve tissues
C. Neurons, mitochondria, nerve tissues, brain
D. Mitochondria, neurons, nerve tissues, brain
Mitochondria, neurons, nerve tissues, brain
Which of the following processes correctly describe the formation of new cells in order to replace worn-out and damaged cells during injury?
Mitosis
Which of the following is not located on the anterior region of the human body?
A. Vertebral column
B. Mandible
C. Clavicle
D. Sternum
Vertebral Column
Which of the types of tissue is responsible for providing the matrix that supports and connects other tissues of the body?
Connective Tissue
Which of the following is the name of the imaginary vertical plane that divides the body into left and right?
A. Sagittal
B. Transverse
C. Horizontal
D. Coronal
Sagittal
Which of the following steps of protein synthesis occurs in the nucleus?
Transcription of mRNA
Which of the following describes the function of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum?
Synthesis and transport of proteins
Which of the following is the largest organ of the human body?
skin
The head is _________ to the neck.
Superior
Which of the following organ systems is not correctly paired with its function?
A. Digestive/ provide defense against infectious diseases
B. Circulatory/ transport of substance to all tissues of the body
C. Nervous/ collecting, analyzing and integrating information that regulates intrinsic body conditions and maintains behavioral patterns
D. Respiratory/ breathing and gas exchange
Digestive/ provide defense against infectious diseases
Which of the following does not correctly describe a cell membrane?
It is composed of a single layer of lipids interspersed with proteins
Which of the following organelles plays a vital role in the breaking down of macromolecules?
lysosomes
Which of the following cell organelles is correctly paired with its function?
A. Nucleus/ Intracellular digestion
B. Ribosome/ Protein synthesis
C. Lysosomes/ ATP production
D. Mitochondria/ Cell division
Ribosome/ Protein synthesis
Which organelle is responsible for storing DNA?
nucleus
Which of the following is a heterotrophic organism with a genome stored in DNA?
A. Plants
B. Virus
C. Human
D. Algae
Human
Which of the following organelles is responsible for digesting damaged cellular structures, as well as macromolecules and bacteria ingested by the cell?
Lysosome
Which of the following anatomical terms is correctly matched with its meaning?
A. carpal/foot
B. cranial/skull
C. Inguinal/neck
D. cervical/wrist
cranial/skull
Which of the following is happening during a contraction of the diaphragm?
A. Forced expiration
B. An increase in alveolar pressure
C. A decrease in the volume of the thoracic cavity
D. A decrease in alveolar pressure
A decrease in alveolar pressure
The ______________ is a double layered membrane that lines the lungs.
A. pericardium
B. pleura
C. alveolus
D. pleural cavity
B. pleura
Which of the following lists the respiratory passageways in order from largest diameter to smallest diameter?
A. Bronchioles, bronchi, trachea
B. Bronchi, trachea, bronchioles
C. Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles
D. Trachea, bronchioles, bronchi
C. Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles
Which of the following terms is alternatively called the “voice box”?
A. Pharynx
B. Larynx
C. Uvula
D. Trachea
B. Larynx
Which of the following best describes the mechanical process of normal breathing during expiration?
A. The diaphragm relaxes and moves downward, while the intercostal muscles relax and move the ribs downward.
B. The diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, while the intercostal muscles relax and move the ribs downward.
C. The diaphragm contracts and moves upward, while the intercostal muscles relax and contract upward.
D. The diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, while the intercostal muscles contract and move the ribs upward.
The diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, while the intercostal muscles relax and move the ribs downward.
Gas exchange between the blood and alveoli would be enhanced by ______________, but impeded by __________________.
A. decreased respiratory rate; increased tidal volume
B. decreased membrane thickness; increased alveolar surface area
C. increased tidal volume; decreased membrane thickness
D. increased alveolar surface area; increased membrane thickness
increased alveolar surface area; increased membrane thickness
In the respiratory system, the majority of gas exchange takes place ___________________.
A. in the bronchi
B. in the alveoli
C. in the trachea
D. in the bronchioles
in the alveoli
Which of the following describes the volume of air associated with a normal breath?
A. Tidal volume
B. Residual volume
C. Total lung capacity
D. Inspiratory reserve volume
A. Tidal volume
Which of the following conditions would exhibit an increase in lung compliance?
A. Lung cancer
B. Emphysema
C. Asthma
D. Bronchitis
Emphysema
Which of the following substances is produced by the lung for the purpose of reducing surface tension?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Surfactant
C. Oxidase
D. Sodium bicarbonate
Surfactant
What is the correct sequence in which inhaled air passes through the respiratory tract?
Nasal cavity, Pharynx, Trachea, Bronchi, Larynx, Bronchioles
Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles
______________ is the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the alveolar membrane.
A. Active transport
B. Diffusion
C. Osmosis
D. Exocytosis
Diffusion
Which of the following anatomical structures prevents food from entering the respiratory system?
A. Epiglottis
B. Pharynx
C. Larynx
D. Pleura
Epiglottis
Which of the following terms correctly describes the movement of air in and out of the lungs?
A. Respiration
B. Oxidation
C. Ventilation
D. Diffusion
Ventilation
Voluntarily holding your breath will eventually result in:
A. brain damage or death to due to lack of oxygen.
B. an innate reflex to start breathing due to low oxygen levels.
C. temporary unconsciousness and risk of stroke.
D. an innate reflex to start breathing due to increased carbon dioxide levels.
an innate reflex to start breathing due to increased carbon dioxide levels.
A lung with a low level of compliance could be best described as _____________.
A. a stiff lung requiring extra work to accomplish normal breathing.
B. A lung with a high elasticity but with damaged alveoli.
C. a lung with normal function.
D. a highly elastic lung allowing breathing occur with reduced work.
a stiff lung requiring extra work to accomplish normal breathing.
Which of the following is not a function of pulmonary surfactant?
A. Increase in lung compliance
B. Reduction of surface tension
C. Decrease in lung compliance
D. Prevention of lung collapse
Decrease in lung compliance
Diastole is the term that describes , while systole represents____.
A. contraction and filling; relaxing and ejection
B. receiving of the electrical impulse from the SA node; ventricular contraction
C. relaxing and filling; contraction and ejection
D. contraction and ejection; relaxing and filling
relaxing and filling; contraction and ejection
The primary function of the ________________ is to deliver blood to the brain.
A. aorta
B. subclavian artery
C. brachial artery
D. carotid artery
carotid artery
Which blood vessel delivers blood directly into the right atrium?
A. Brachial artery
B. Coronary artery
C. Vena cava
D. Aorta
Which of the following conditions occurs when a blood vessel in the brain becomes blocked?
A. Stroke
B. Migraine
C. Aneurysm
D. Myocardial infarction
One of the primary functions of blood is to deliver oxygen-rich blood to the body’s tissues. This is accomplished by ________________, which contain the oxygen-carrying protein called ___________________.
A. plasma; albumin
B. platelets; hemoglobin
C. leukocytes; myoglobin
D. erythrocytes; hemoglobin
erythrocytes; hemoglobin
Which of the following comparisons between arteries and veins is true?
A. Veins have valves, and arteries do not.
B. Veins have a smaller diameter than arteries.
C. Veins have thick, muscular walls, while arteries have thin, more compliant walls.
D. Veins carry freshly oxygenated blood from tissue back to the heart, while arteries carry oxygen-depleted blood away from the heart.
Veins have valves, and arteries do not.
The condition ________________ can often lead to ________________ due to buildup and blockage of coronary arteries, preventing blood flow to the myocardium.
A. arteriosclerosis; myocardial infarction
B. arteriosclerosis; stroke
C. atherosclerosis; stroke
D. atherosclerosis; myocardial infarction
atherosclerosis; myocardial infarction
In order for the heart to contract, an action potential must be generated at the sinoatrial node. If this signal fails to reach the Purkinje fibers, what will be the result?
A. The ventricles will not contract and blood will pool within the heart
B. The diastolic period will be shortened
C. The systolic period will be elongated
D. The Purkinje fibers will act as pacemaker cells but fire at a slower rate
the Purkinje fibers will act as pacemaker cells but fire at a slower rate
_______________ is a condition in which red blood cells are poorly functioning and have reduced ability to carry oxygen.
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypertension
C. Anemia
D. Leukemia
Anemia
Which of the following arteries has the primary responsibility of supplying blood to the reproductive system?
A. Gonadal artery
B. Inguinal artery
C. Common iliac artery
D. Femoral artery
Gonadal artery
In order for blood to be delivered to the body (i.e. the systemic circuit), enough pressure must be developed by the ___________ to push open the ________________.
A. right ventricle; aortic semilunar valve
B. right ventricle; pulmonary semilunar valve
C. left ventricle; pulmonary semilunar valve
D. left ventricle; aortic semilunar valve
left ventricle; aortic semilunar valve
Which of the following describes what would happen during a period of hyperventilation?
A. Increased oxygen uptake results in greater tissue perfusion
B. Decreased carbon dioxide levels result in a decrease in pH
C. Increased carbon dioxide levels result in an increase in pH
D. Decreased carbon dioxide levels result in an increase in pH
Decreased carbon dioxide levels result in an increase in pH
Which of the following is not typically a result of an embolus?
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Myocardial infarction
D. TIA
Atherosclerosis
Which of the following structures is correctly paired with its function?
A. Mouth- mechanical digestion
B. Stomach- absorption of nutrients
C. Colon- formation of chyme
D. Small intestine- formation of feces
Mouth- mechanical digestion
Of the following organs, which has both endocrine and digestive functions?
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Duodenum
D. Colon
Pancreas
The term _________________ refers to the contraction of smooth muscle in the digestive system that moves food along the GI tract.
A. peristalsis
B. retroperistalsis
C. vasoconstriction
D. segmentation
peristslsis
Which of the following is not part of the small intestine?
A. Ileum
B. Jejunum
C. Duodenum
D. Colon
Colon
Which of the following statements is true about protein digestion?
A. The majority of mechanical protein digestion occurs in the stomach.
B. Absorption of protein occurs primarily in the small intestine.
C.The majority of protein absorption occurs in the large intestine.
D. Chemical digestion of protein initially occurs in the mouth
Absorption of protein occurs primarily in the small intestine
Which of the following statements regarding digestion is false?
A. Villi and microvilli increase surface area for absorption.
B. The pancreas secretes the hormone insulin to regulate blood sugar levels.
C. The presence of fiber in the esophagus promotes peristalsis.
D. The hormone glucagon is secreted from the pancreas and stimulates mechanical digestion.
The hormone glucagon is secreted from the pancreas and stimulates mechanical digestion.
Gastric reflux occurs as a result of an improper closing of the ________________.
A. pyloric sphincter
B. epiglottis
C. Upper esophageal sphincter
D. lower esophageal sphincter
lower esophageal sphincter
If villi in the small intestine were to become damaged, which of the following would likely occur?
A. A reduced ability to breakdown fat due to the inability of villi to secrete bile.
B. Segmentation of the stomach would be negatively affected leading to reduced digestion.
C. Malnutrition would result due to a decreased ability to absorb nutrients.
D. Gastric reflux disease would result due to the increased production of stomach acid.
Malnutrition would result due to a decreased ability to absorb nutrients
The ______________ is an extension off of the large intestine that is often referred to as a vestigial organ.
A. spleen
B. cecum
C. gall bladder
D. appendix
appendix
In the digestive system, bile is manufactured by the ______________ and stored in the ______________.
A. liver; gallbladder
B. stomach; gallbladder
C. gallbladder; liver
D. gallbladder; stomach
liver; gallbladder
The majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the _________________.
Small Intestine
The function of the pyloric sphincter is to ______________.
A. release stomach enzymes
B. produce chyme
C. prevent reflux of digestive juices into the esophagus
D. control the entry of food into the duodenum
control the entry of food into the duodenum
In the digestive system, the function of the ____________ is to ______________.
A. stomach; secrete pepsinogen for protein digestion
B. pancreas; secrete bile for starch digestion
C. gall bladder; secrete lipase for fat emulsification
D. liver; secrete insulin for glucose uptake.
stomach; secrete pepsinogen for protein digestion
The primary function of _____________ is _____________________.
A. Saliva; protein breakdown in the mouth
B. Chyme; carbohydrate breakdown in the mouth
C. bile; fat emulsification in the small intestine
D. Amylase; fat breakdown in the stomach
bile; fat emulsification in the small intestine
The folds that make up the shape of the villi and microvilli:
A. Facilitate absorption due to an increased surface area.
B. Help push food along the intestinal tract.
C. Create a barrier to block absorption of fats.
D. Increase enzyme secretions due to greater surface area
Facilitate absorption due to an increased surface area.
Which of the following describes the contraction of the smooth muscle in order to move food down the esophagus to the stomach?
A. Pharyngeal constriction
B. Deglutition
C. Mastication
D. Peristalsis
Peristalsis
Which of the following digestive organs contains vitamin-producing bacteria?
A. Stomach
B. Liver
C. Large intestine
D. Small intestine
Large intestine
Which of the following is not a function of pancreatic juice?
A. Increase acidity of stomach contents
B. Chemically digest proteins
C. Chemically digest carbohydrates
D. Neutralize the pH of chyme
Increase acidity of stomach contents
Which of the following parts and divisions of the nervous system is correctly paired?
A. autonomic division/ peripheral nervous system
B. brain/ peripheral nervous system
C. spinal cord/ peripheral nervous system
D. autonomic division/ central nervous system
autonomic division/ peripheral nervous system
Which of the following incorrectly describes neurons?
A. Motor neurons carry efferent impulses.
B. Sensory neurons carry afferent impulses.
C. Sensory neurons carry information away from the brain.
D. Motor neurons cause muscle contractions.
Sensory neurons carry information away from the brain
Which of the following is correct about muscle contraction? Please select all that apply.
Neurotransmitters stimulate muscle contraction.
Muscle contraction requires ATP.
Myosin filaments shorten during contraction.
Actin filaments shorten during contraction.
Sarcomere shorten during contraction.
Actin and myosin filaments slide past each other
Neurotransmitters stimulate muscle contraction.
Muscle contraction requires ATP.
Sarcomere shortens during contraction.
Actin and myosin filaments slide past each other.
What is the role of the myelin sheath in the nervous system?
A. Insulate axons
B. Transport organelles and macromolecules
C. Produce neurotransmitters
D. Store ions for action potential propagation
Insulate axons
Which of the following parts of the brain is responsible for posture, balance and movement coordination?
A. Occipital lobe
B. Cerebrum
C. Cerebellum
D. Temporal lobe
Cerebellum
Which of the following is the basic contractile unit of the skeletal muscle?
A. Sarcolemma
B. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
C. Sarcomere
D. Z-disc
Sarcomere
Skeletal muscle contraction is stimulated by the release of which neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Epinephrine
Acetylcholine
Which of the following structures divide and multiply in cases of injury or disease?
A. Glial cells
B. Cell bodies
C. Dendrites
D. Axons
Glial cells
Which of the following describes the role of acetylcholine in muscle contraction?
A. Acetylcholine binds to the membrane receptor in the sarcolemma and facilitates opening of the sodium channels.
B. Acetylcholine binds to the membrane receptor and inhibits the stimulation and contraction of muscle fiber.
C. Acetylcholine binds to the sarcolemma to open calcium channels.
D. Binding of acetylcholine results in the repolarization of the sarcolemma.
Acetylcholine binds to the membrane receptor in the sarcolemma and facilitates opening of the sodium channels.
Dopamine is one of the neurotransmitters in the nervous system. What happens when dopamine is released into the nerve synapse?
A. Binding of dopamine to the membrane receptor of the postsynaptic cell
B. Excitation and contraction of the presynaptic cell
C. Firing of an action potential by the presynaptic cell
D. Dopamine will enter the cytoplasm of the postsynaptic cell
Binding of dopamine to the membrane receptor of the postsynaptic cell
Which of the following types of muscles are involuntary?
A. skeletal and visceral
B. cardiac and skeletal
C. cardiac and visceral
D. skeletal only
cardiac and visceral
Which of the following functional types of nerves is correctly paired with the impulse it carries?
A. afferent/ carry stimulus towards the central nervous system
B afferent/ motor nerves
C. efferent / carry stimulus away from the peripheral nervous system.
D. efferent/ sensory nerves
efferent / carry stimulus away from the peripheral nervous system.
Which of the following refers to the process of nerve stimulation wherein the action potential is generated through several stimulations released in rapid succession by a single source?
A. Continuous conduction
B. Temporal summation
C. Spatial summation
D. Saltatory conduction
Temporal summation
Which of the following parts of neurons is correctly paired with its function?
A. cell body/ releases neurotransmitters
B. dendrites/ site of metabolic activities
C. axon / sends stimulus to axon terminal
D. axon terminal / receives stimulus from cell body
axon / sends stimulus to axon terminal
Which of the following correctly pairs an action with the nervous system that controls it?
A. digestion/ autonomic
B. breathing/ somatic
C. chewing/ autonomic
D. heart contraction/ somatic
digestion/ autonomic
The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is primarily responsible for stimulating activities that would increase alertness during periods of stress and anxiety. Which of the following activities is not a sympathetic response?
A. Sweating
B. Increase in blood pressure
C. Increase in salivation
D. Dilation of the pupils
Increase in salivation
Which of the following disorders is caused by the degenerative demyelination of motor neurons resulting in dysfunction of voluntary muscles?
A. Muscle sprain
B. Muscle strain
C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D. Muscular dystrophy
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Transecting injuries to the spinal cord will have detrimental effect to which of the following?
A. Autonomic system
B. Brain and spinal cord
C. Somatic and autonomic systems
D. Somatic system
Somatic and autonomic systems
Which of the following statements is true about viruses?
A. Viruses will have either DNA and RNA as their genetic material, but not both.
B. Viruses have a mix of both DNA and RNA components.
C. All viruses only have RNA as their genetic material.
D. All viruses only have DNA as their genetic material.
Viruses will have either DNA and RNA as their genetic material, but not both.
Which of the following is incorrect about muscle contraction?
A. Muscle contraction requires ATP.
B. Neurotransmitters stimulate muscle contraction.
C. Actin and myosin filaments shorten during contraction.
D. Sarcomeres shorten during contraction.
Actin and myosin filaments shorten during contraction.
Which division of the nervous system facilitates muscle contraction?
A. Autonomic division
B. Somatic division
C. Visceral division
D. Involuntary division
Somatic division
During contraction, thin ________________ filaments slide past the thick ______________ filaments which result to shortening of sarcomere and contraction of the muscle.
A. troponin/ tropomyosin
B. actin/ myosin
C. actin/ tropomyosin
D. myosin/ troponin
actin/ myosin
Which of the following is true about the role of ATP in muscle contraction and relaxation?
A. ATP is needed for the release of neurotransmitters.
B. ATP is needed for both the relaxation and contraction of muscle.
C. ATP is needed during muscle contraction only.
D. ATP is needed during muscle relaxation only.
ATP is needed for both the relaxation and contraction of muscle.
Which of the following is the thick contractile protein found in the sarcomere?
A. Tropomyosin
B. Actin
C. Myosin
D. Troponin
Myosin
Which of the following is the result of demyelination?
A. Uptake of neurotransmitters will be inhibited
B. Neurotransmitters will not be produced
C. Disrupted propagation of action potential along the axon
D. Defective transport of organelles and macromolecules from cell body to axon
Disrupted propagation of action potential along the axon
Which of the following is true?
A. The female gametes are called ova and contain full set of chromosomes.
B. The female gametes are called ovaries and contain half of a set of chromosomes.
C. The male gametes are called eggs and contain full set of chromosomes.
D. The male gametes are called sperm and contain half of a set of chromosomes
The male gametes are called sperm and contain half of a set of chromosomes
Which of the following structures is correctly paired with its description?
A. Seminal vesicle/ transports sperm from epididymis to urethra
B. Vas deferens/ transports urine in both male and female and semen in male
C. Urethra/ temporarily store the sperm
D. Prostate gland/ secretion of fluid that contributes to sperm motility and viability
Prostate gland/ secretion of fluid that contributes to sperm motility and viability