Blood Bank Final (Tests)

Platelet shelf life is ______ from collection.

a. 5 weeks

b. 5 days

c. 5 hours

d. 5 months

b. 5 days

The addition of additive solutions to RBC units can improve storage times to _________.

a. 24 days

b. 2 weeks

c. 42 days

d. 10 years

c. 42 days

When there is antibody excess, this is called ________.

a. Equivalance

b. Prozone

c. Postzone

d. Normal

b. Prozone

When there is antigen excess, this is called ______.

Selected Answer:c.

a.

Equivalence

b.

Prozone

c.

Postzone

d.

Prezone

c.

Postzone

Which immunoglobulin class is a pentamer?

a.

IgA

b.

IgM

c.

IgG

d.

IgE

b.

IgM

Who discovered the ABO groups?

a. Gibson

b. Drew

c. Landsteiner

d. Lindemann

c. Landsteiner

At each locus there may be only one, or several different forms of the gene, which are called ___________.

a. aneuploidy

b. Euchromatin

c. Alleles

d. Hemizygous

c. Alleles

Before the donation process begins, donors receive all of the following except:

a. Juice and cookies

b. Abbreviated physical exam

c. Health history questionnaire

d. Educational materials

a. Juice and cookies

In the prozone effect, there is excess _________ in the sample.

a. Antigen

b. Chromatin

c. Antibody

d. Saline

c. Antibody

In what year was the first recorded blood transfusion performed?

a. 1492

b. 1869

c. 1901

d. 1914

a. 1492

Most blood group inheritance is in a _______________ manner.

a. Recessive

b. Dominant

c. Co-dominant

d. Non-dominant

c. Co-dominant

Normal hemoglobin function depends on adequate levels of ____________.

a. Lactic acid

b. Na+

c. CO2

d. 2,3-DPG

d. 2,3-DPG

Platelets are typically stored at what temperature?

a.

Refrigerated (1 to 6 degrees C)

b.

Frozen (-20 to -80 degrees C)

c.

Room Temp (20 to 24 degrees C)

d.

Heat incubated (37 degrees C)

c.

Room Temp (20 to 24 degrees C)

The FDA requires a 24-hour post-transfusion survival of more than _____ %.

a. 50

b. 25

c. 75

d. 100

c. 75

The specific location of a gene on a chromosome is called a __________.

a. Gene splice

b. Locus

c. Chromatin

d. Allele

b. Locus

What class of immunoglobulins are generally considered to be the 'cold reactive' due to their exceptional ability to agglutinate without assistance?

a. IgA

b. IgG

c. IgM

d. IgD

c. IgM

What is the ideal pH range for antigen-antibody reactions to occur?

a. 3.5-4.2

b. 6.5-7.5

c. 7.5-8.0

d. 5.6-7.5

b. 6.5-7.5

Which immunoglobulin is a warm reactive antibody, that is generally clinically significant and the basis of most blood bank testing?

a. IgM

b. IgG

c. IgE

d. IgA

b. IgG

Which of the following are challenges that are presented because of platelet storage limitations? (select all that apply)

Selected Answers:b.

a. Hemolysis

b. Decline in ADP/ATP

c. 5 day outdate

d. Platelet storage lesion

e. Bacterial contamination

f. Release of intracellular granules

b. Decline in ADP/ATP

c. 5 day outdate

d. Platelet storage lesion

e. Bacterial contamination

Which of the following are possible clinical applications of red cell genotyping?

a. Determining frequency of blood group polymorphisms

b. Fetal DNA typing

c. Donor typing for alloimmunized patients

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

All of the following are consistent with a "shift to the right" of the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve except:

a. increased 2,3-DPG.

b. 50% O2 saturation to tissues.

c. decreased 2,3-DPG.

d. decreased hemoglobin affinity for O2.

c. decreased 2,3-DPG.

FDA-approved rejuvenation solution contains all of the following EXCEPT:

a. inosine

b. phosphate

c. adenine

d. glycerin

d. glycerin

Name the main lipid components of a red blood cell membrane.

a. Glycophorin A

b. Phospholipid

c. Sphingomyelin

d. Glycolipid

b. Phospholipid

One of the most important controls of hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen is:

a. 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG).

b. glucose.

c. K+.

d. Ca++.

a. 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG).

The RBC membrane is relatively permeable to all of the following except:

a. chloride.

b. water.

c. bicarbonate.

d. sodium.

d. sodium.

What cryoprotective agent is added to red blood cells upon freezing?

a. Dextrose

b. Adsol

c. Glycerol

d. All of the above

c. Glycerol

What does the term autologous transfusion refer to?

a. A parent donating blood for his or her child

b. An individual donating blood for his or her own transfusion

c. An individual donating blood for a relative

d. An individual donating blood for a friend

b. An individual donating blood for his or her own transfusion

What is the normal life span of an RBC?

a. 120 hours

b. 2 days

c. 120 days

d. 100 days

b. 2 days

What is the primary function of hemoglobin?

a. Porphyrin synthesis

b. Iron metabolism

c. Oxygen transport

d. Signal transduction

c. Oxygen transport

Which red blood cell preservative has a storage time of 35 days?

a. CPD

b. AS-1

c. CPDA-1

d. ACD

c. CPDA-1

Why are platelet transfusions performed?

a. Neither reason.

b. Both reasons.

c. Prophylactically to prevent bleeding

d. Therapeutically to stop bleeding

b. Both reasons.

At what temperature do IgG antibodies react optimally?

a. 4°C

b. 37°C

c. 56°C

d. 22°C

b. 37°C

At what temperature do IgM antibodies react?

a. 22°C

b. 37°C

c. 56°C

d. 42°C

a. 22°C

What does the term zeta potential mean?

a. The ability of antigen to react with antibody

b. The attraction of negative charges on the surface of red blood cells to positive charges in an ionic cloud

c. The attraction of positive charges on the red blood cell surface to negative charges in an ionic cloud

d. The repulsion between red blood cells caused by noncovalent forces

b. The attraction of negative charges on the surface of red blood cells to positive charges in an ionic cloud

How is RNA different from DNA?

a. RNA usually exists as one strand

b. Ribose is substituted for deoxyribose

c. RNA incorporates uracil

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

How many chromosomes do somatic cells of humans have?

a. 50

b. 46

c. 100

d. 23

b. 46

Which of the following best describes the structure of human chromosomes?

a. Linear strands of DNA wound around histones

b. Linear strands of RNA wrapped around histones

c. Quaternary structure of DNA wound around histones

d. Tertiary structure of DNA wound around histones

a. Linear strands of DNA wound around histones

Which of the following best describes the process of mitosis?

a. Cell division of germ cells by which two successive divisions of the nucleus produce cells that contain half the number of chromosomes of somatic cells

b. Cell division by which only one-half of the daughter cells produced are identical to the parent cell

c. Cell division that produces two daughter cells having the same number of chromosomes as the parent

d. Cell division that produces four daughter cells (4n)

c. Cell division that produces two daughter cells having the same number of chromosomes as the parent

When an individual is said to have blood group A, it refers to the individual's:

a. phenotype.

b. alleles on the chromosome.

c. genotype.

d. haplotype.

A

The two strands of DNA are: _________; one runs in a 5' to 3' direction, and the other runs in a 3' to 5' direction.

a. zigzag

b. antiparallel

c. parallel

d. somatic

b. antiparallel

Which of the following best describes the principle of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

a. Migration of proteins in an electrical field

b. Amplification of DNA using two oligonucleotide primers that hybridize to opposite DNA strands, isolating a particular segment

c. Amplification of RNA using two oligonucleotide primers that hybridize to opposite DNA strands

d. Enzymatic cleavage of proteins for DNA sequencing

b. Amplification of DNA using two oligonucleotide primers that hybridize to opposite DNA strands, isolating a particular segment

Which of the following is not consistent with the structure of DNA?

a. The double helix consists of two strands of nucleotides, which are parallel.

b. The helical ladder is built from alternating units of deoxyribose and phosphate.

c. The double helix consists of two strands of nucleotides, which are antiparallel.

d. At each turn of the helix, 10 base pairs are stacked on top of each other.

a. The double helix consists of two strands of nucleotides, which are parallel.

Which of the following statements regarding the DNA molecule is false?

a. Adenine always pairs with uracil.

b. Options A and B

c. Cytosine always pairs with guanine.

d. Adenine always pairs with thymine.

a. Adenine always pairs with uracil.

What class of immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta?

a. IgM

b. IgD

c. IgG

d. IgE

c. IgG

What is a possible explanation for a weak reaction (1+) in a reverse ABO grouping test?

a. Elderly patient

b. Immunocompromised patient

c. IgM deficiency

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

You are given the phenotype: D+ C+ c+ E- e+

What is the most probable genotype for this phenotypic expression?

a. R1r

b. Ror'

c. R1R2

d. r'r

a. R1r

You are given the phenotype: D+ C+ c+ E- e+

What are the possible genotypes for this phenotypic expression? (select all that apply)

1. DCe/dcE

2. DCe/Dce

3. DCe/dce

4. Dce/dCe

2. DCe/Dce

3. DCe/dce

4. Dce/dCe

ABO antibodies are naturally occuring and generally of the _____ class of immunoglobulins.

a. IgA

b. IgG

c. IgE

d. IgM

d. IgM

All of the following are clinically significant antigens, except:

a. Kell

b. Rh

c. Lewis

d. Kidd

C. Lewis

An autoanti-I is associated with which of the following?

a. P. unicornicus

b. B. microti

c. F. malariae

d. M. pneumoniae

d. M. pneumoniae

Anti-M is generally _____ and reacts best at ________.

a. IgG, 4°C

b. IgM, 37°C

c. IgG, 37°C

d. IgM,

d. IgM,

If someone has both the H and Se genes silenced, what is their blood type called?

a. Acquired B

b. Bombay

c. Para-bombay

d. Secretor

b. Bombay

If someone is a secretor (either Sese or SeSe), they will have which of the following antigenic substances present in their secretions if that are blood group 'A'? (Select all that aply)

a. B

b. A

c. H

d. O

b. A

c. H

If you have a positive polyspecific DAT test, you then need to test:

a. Monoclonoal Abs

b. Polyclonal IgG and complement

c. Monospecific IgG and complement

d. Polyclonal Abs

c. Monospecific IgG and complement

If you have an A Neg RBC on your shelf that will be outdating soon, which of the following patient blood types would be compatible to receive it? (Select ALL that apply for full points)

a. A Pos

b. O Neg

c. A Neg

d. AB Pos

e. B Pos

c. A Neg

d. AB Pos

In a DAT test, the principle is that you are determining if ___________ _____________ of RBCs has occured.

a. In vivo, agglutination

b. In vitro, sensitization

c. In vivo, sensitization

d. In vitro, agglutination

c. In vivo, sensitization

In blood banking it is important to know which units are compatible for your patients. If you have a unit of AB Neg RBCs, which of the following individuals would you be able to transfuse them to?

a. A Neg

b. B Pos

c. O Neg

d. AB Pos

d. AB Pos

Next to ABO and Rh antigens, which of the following antigens is the next most immunogenic?

a. Duffy

b. Kell

c. Kidd

d. Lewis

b. Kell

PT Cells: + Pt Cells+ Pt Plasma+ Pt Plasma+

Anti-A Anti-B A1 Cells B Cells

0 4+ 4+ 0

What is the ABO type based on the forward and reverse testing?

a .O

b. B

c. A

d. AB

b. B

RBCs contain ________ blank on their membranes and plasma contains __________.

a.Antibodies, antigens

b. Antibodies, antibodies

c. A, Anti-A

d. Antigens, antibodies

d. Antigens, antibodies

The Rh Fisher-Race phenotype DcE/dCe would be converted to which of the following Weiner terminologies?

a. R2r'

b. R1r"

c. r'r"

d. R2R1

a. R2r'

The ___ gene is the precursor for the A and B antigens to form and it is the only ABO antigen present on the type ___ blood group.

a. H, AB

b. Se, O

c. H, O

d. Se, AB

c. H, O

True or false: Enzyme treatment enhances Rh reactivity

True

False

True

What are the main antigens in the Rh group? (select all that apply)

1. D

2. d

3. C

4. c

5. E

6. e

1. D

3. C

4. c

5. E

6. e

What is the most common subgroup of 'A'?

a.Ax

b.A3

c.A2

d.Ael

c.A2

Which of the following would have a secretor status? (Select all that apply)

a. Le, sese, ABH

b. Le, Se, ABH

c. Le, Se, hh, AB

d. lele, sese, ABH

b. Le, Se, ABH

c. Le, Se, hh, AB

You have a thawed 'A' plasma that will expire at midnight. Which of the following ABOs can receive this unit? (Select all that apply)

a.O

b. AB

c. B

d. A

a. O

d. A

What is tested in an antibody screen?

a. Patient serum is tested against group A reagent screening cells.

b. Patient serum is tested against group O reagent screening cells.

c. Patient red blood cells are tested against group O reagent screening cells.

d. Patient serum is tested against group AB reagent screening cells.

b. Patient serum is tested against group O reagent screening cells.

What makes up an autologous control?

a. Patient serum and patient cells

b. Patient serum and screening cells

c. Patient cells and Rh control

d. None of the above

a. Patient serum and patient cells

Conventional tube testing in AHG testing has one distinct advantage over gel testing. Identify the advantage.

a. Time savings

b. Automation

c. Cost

d. Sensitivity

c. Cost

Polyspecific AHG contains:

a. anti-C3b-C3d.

b. anti-IgG.

c. anti-IgG and anti-IgM.

d. anti-IgG and anti- C3d.

d. anti-IgG and anti- C3d.

What is the action of PEG?

a. Reduces ionic strength to allow for faster antibody uptake

b. Removes water molecules, thereby concentrating antibody

c. Increases the serum-to-cell ratio

d. Its macromolecules allow for closer contact of antibody-coated RBCs

b. Removes water molecules, thereby concentrating antibody

Forward grouping is defined as:

a. detecting antigen(s) on an individual's red blood cells via reagent antisera.

b. detecting ABO group antigen via reagent red blood cells.

c. detecting antibody on an individual's red blood cells via reagent antisera.

d. detecting ABO group antibody via reagent red blood cells.

a. detecting antigen(s) on an individual's red blood cells via reagent antisera.

How are ABH antigens formed?

a. Production of specific glycosyltransferases add sugars to precursor substances

b. Recombinant gene technology

c. ABO genes code for production of antigens

d. All of the above

a. Production of specific glycosyltransferases add sugars to precursor substances

The ABO group antibodies are primarily:

a. naturally occurring.

b. autoantibodies.

c. alloantibodies.

d. drug induced.

a. naturally occurring.

What ABO group contains the least amount of H substance?

a. A2B

b. A2

c. A1

d. A1B

d. A1B

What is the source of anti-A1 lectin?

a. Bandeiraea simplicifolia

b. Dolichos biflorus

c. Ulex europaeus

d. All of the above

b. Dolichos biflorus

What is the source of anti-B lectin?

a. Bandeiraea simplicifolia

b. Ulex europaeus

c. Dolichos biflorus

d. All of the above

a. Bandeiraea simplicifolia

In the Fisher-Race nomenclature what does "d" refer to?

a.Amorph

b.Silent allele

c.Absence of D

d.All of the above

c.Absence of D

Why is determination of Rh status crucial for obstetric patients?

a. All Rh-positive mothers are possible candidates for Rh immune globulin.

b. An Rh-positive mother can form anti-D, which will destroy D-positive red blood cells of the fetus.

c. An Rh-negative mother can form anti-D if she gives birth to an Rh-negative baby.

d. All Rh-negative mothers are possible candidates for Rh immune globulin.

d. All Rh-negative mothers are possible candidates for Rh immune globulin.

Which antibodies show dosage?

a.Rh K Kidd Duffy Lewis

b.Rh, MNSs, Duffy, Kidd

c.MNSs Duffy Lutheran

d.Duffy Kidd Lewis

b.Rh, MNSs, Duffy, Kidd

The absence of which antigens helps create resistance to malaria?

a.Duffy

b.Kidd

c.K

d.Rh

a.Duffy

Antibodies in which of the following blood group systems are "notorious" for escaping detection on an antibody screen and cause a severe delayed HTR when antigen positive RBC's are transfused to a patient?

a.Kell

b.Rh

c.Duffy

d.Kidd

d.Kidd

A 26-year old woman, who is B negative, needs a transfusion of FFP. If there is no B FFP in the blood bank, what type would you choose?

a.A

b.O neg

c.AB

d.O

c.AB

All of the following are usually considered clinically significant antibodies except?

a.Anti-K

b.Anti-I

c.Anti-Jkb

d.Anti-Fya

b.Anti-I

Which is not part of the Kell system?

a.Jkb

b.Kell

c.cellano

d.Kpa

a.Jkb

At what temperature is the incubation phase of the AHG test?

a. 56°C

b. 37°C

c. 4°C

d. 22°C

b. 37°C

How is polyclonal antiglobulin serum made?

a. Serum from one human is injected into another human, and an antibody is produced.

b. Human serum is injected into rabbits, and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody.

c. Murine serum is injected into mice, and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody.

d. Murine serum is injected into rabbits, and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody.

b. Human serum is injected into rabbits, and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody.

A1 lectin agglutinates:

a. cells not agglutinated by absorbed anti-A.

b. only A1 cells.

c. all subgroups of A.

d. all cells except A2.

b. only A1 cells.

Which blood group contains the highest concentration of H antigen?

a. O

b. AB

c. B

d. A2

a. O

What is the purpose of washing cells in the AHG test?

a. To remove all bound protein

b. To dilute serum

c. To remove all unbound protein

d. To exclude a low-affinity antibody

c. To remove all unbound protein

Why is the 37°C reading omitted when using PEG additive?

a. Warm-reacting antibodies are not clinically significant.

b. Antibodies detected by PEG do not react at 37°C.

c. Unwanted reactions due to C3b will be detected at 37°C.

d. PEG may cause aggregation of RBCs at 37°C.

d. PEG may cause aggregation of RBCs at 37°C.

Why is incubation omitted in the direct AHG (DAT) test?

a. In vivo antigen antibody complex is already formed.

b. Incubation elutes complement components from red blood cells.

c. Incubation will cause lysis of red blood cells.

d. Polyspecific AHG contains a higher dose of anti-IgG.

a. In vivo antigen antibody complex is already formed.

A 40-year-old male presented in the ER with acute bleeding. The technologist received a specimen but was unable to resolve a typing discrepancy between the forward and reverse typings. What blood type should the patient receive for emergency transfusion?

a. Type-specific uncrossmatched packed RBCs

b. O-negative uncrossmatched packed RBCs

c. Electronic crossmatched blood

d. O-negative crossmatched packed RBCs

b. O-negative uncrossmatched packed RBCs

A STAT type and screen comes from surgery. Your institution uses a blood bank band ID bracelet system. The nurse who obtained specimens did not label them with the blood bank number before she handed them to transport to take to the laboratory. What would be the most appropriate action to take?

a. Label the specimen yourself and continue with testing._____ 35.

b. Reject the specimen and have it recollected.

c. Accept the specimen as is.

d. Call surgery and have the nurse come down and properly label the specimens.

b. Reject the specimen and have it recollected.

A layer of red blood cells agglutinates at the top of the gel media, and a pellet of unagglutinated red blood cells forms at the bottom. These findings are comparable to which of the following reactions in the test tube?

a. Weak positive

b. Invalid

c. Mixed-field

d. Negative

c. Mixed-field

A patient has a history of anti-Jka. The antibody screen is currently negative. Which red blood cell unit should be selected, and what type of crossmatch should be performed?

a.

Jk(a-) red blood cells, computer crossmatch

b.

Jk(a-) red blood cells, antiglobulin crossmatch

c.

Jk(a-) red blood cells, immediate spin crossmatch

d.

ABO-compatible because the antibody screen is negative.

b.

Jk(a-) red blood cells, antiglobulin crossmatch

A positive autocontrol in antibody detection procedures is usually indicative of:

a. inadequate washing.

b. positive DAT.

c. positive IAT.

d. none of the above.

b. positive DAT.

An autologous unit should be donated what time period prior to the patients surgery/need?

a. 48 hours

b. 1 week

c. 24 hours

d. 72 hours

d. 72 hours

Antibodies formed as the result of RBC stimulation in the patient are known as:

a. active.

b. passive.

c. immune.

d. naturally occurring.

c. immune.