Micro quizzes

The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except ________.

A) inoculation
B) incubation
C) infection
D) isolation
E) identification

C

Newly inoculated cultures must be ________ at a specific temperature to encourage growth.

A) streaked
B) poured
C) incubated
D) contaminated
E) All of the choices are correct

C

A pure culture contains ________

A) only one species of microorganism
B) only bacteria
C) a variety of microbes from one source
D) a variety of species from the same genus
E) None of the choices are correct

A

A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified, and their precise concentrations known and reproducible, would be termed ________.

A) a complex media
B) a reducing media
C) an enriched media
D) a chemically defined media
E) None of the choices are correct

D

A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation?

A) The microbiologist used too much
inoculum
B) The culture is contaminated
C) The incubation temperature was incorrect
D) The culture medium must be selective
E) The culture medium must be differential

D

Disease is often considered the result of

A) negative feedback
B) failure of homeostatic systems
C) maintenance of set point
D) feedback loops
E) all the above

B

The normal level at which a physiological variable is maintained is known as its

A) stimulus
B) control center
C) negative feedback
D) set point
E) effector

D

What do the Gram stain, acid-fast stain, and endospore stain have in common?

A) They are used on a wet mount of the specimen
B) They use heat to force the dye into cell structures
C) The outcome is based on cell differences
D) They use a negative stain technique
E) They are simple stains

C

Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies?

A) Broth medium
B) Differential medium
C) Selective medium
D) Solid medium
E) Assay medium

D

All bacterial cells have ________.

A) one or more chromosomes
B) one or more fimbriae
C) the ability to produce endospores
D) capsules
E) flagella

A

If you looked at a ________ under the microscope, you would likely see an irregular cluster of spherical cells.

A) palisade
B) sarcina
C) staphylococcus
D) streptococcus
E) diplococcus

C

The two functions of bacterial appendages are ________.

A) attachment and protection
B) attachment and motility
C) motility and slime production
D) energy reactions and synthesis
E) protection and motility

B

The term that refers to the presence of flagella over the cell surface is ________.

A) amphitrichous
B) atrichous
C) lophotrichous
D) monotrichous
E) peritrichous

E

Movement of a cell toward a chemical stimulus is termed ________.

A) positive phototaxis
B) negative phototaxis
C) positive chemotaxis
D) negative chemotaxis
E) a tumble

C

An RN in a primary care office is caring for a 15-year-old male with severe gastrointestinal distress. The patient reports four days of diarrhea, vomiting, and intermittent fever. A stool culture was ordered in an attempt to identify a disease-causing pathogen.

Microscopic analysis revealed the presence of gram-negative bacilli in the patient's stool. Based upon this information, which of the following accurately describes the appearance of the bacterium under magnification?

A) Red spheres
B) Purple rods
C) Purple spheres
D) Red rods

D

The laboratory report shows that a motility test was performed on the sample with positive results. Thinking about bacterial movement, the RN is aware that this bacterium could possess which structure(s) for motility?

A) Endospores
B) Pili
C) One or more flagella
D) Pseudopodia

C

The cell ________ can be composed of three layers: the cytoplasmic membrane, the cell wall, and the outer membrane.

A) glycocalyx
B) envelope
C) pathogenic package
D) slime coat

B

The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's ________.

A) ribosomes
B) inclusions
C) wall
D) membrane
E) flagella

C

Gram-negative bacteria

A) are more susceptible to antibiotics that target peptidoglycan than gram-positive organisms.
B) are less susceptible to antibiotics that target peptidoglycan than gram-positive organisms
C) stain purple in the Gram stain
D) encompass all pathogens
E) None of the choices is correct

B

A chain of rod-shaped cells would be called a(an) ________.

A) streptobacillus
B) staphylobacillus
C) streptococcus
D) staphylococcus
E) sarcina

A

The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be ________.

A) material would not be able to cross the cell membrane
B) protein synthesis would stop
C) destruction of the cell's DNA
D) formation of glycogen inclusions
E) loss of the capsule

B

What three components comprise the flagellum, extending from the cytoplasm to the exterior of the cell?

A) Filament, hook, basal body
B) Filament, basal body, hook
C) Basal body, hook, filament
D) Hook, basal body, filament
E) Basal body, filament, hook

C

Diagnosing a disease involves determining the

A) cause of the homeostatic imbalance
B) multiple side effects of a drug
C) effector and the set point
D) negativity of the feedback
D) negativity of the feedback

A

Which of the following statements accurately describes the organization of structures?

A)Organs are made up of tissues, which are made up of cells, which are made up of organelles and molecules.
B) Tissues are made up of organs, which are made up of cells, which are made up of individual atoms
C) Organisms are made up of tissues, which are made up of organ systems, which are made up of DNA.
D) Organ systems are made up of cells, which are made up of tissues, which are made up of organelles
E) Organs are made up of cells, which are made up of atoms, which are made up of molecules

A

Which of the following occurs during assembly of an enveloped virus?

A) Nucleocapsid is formed
B) New viral nucleic acid is formed.
C) Viral spikes insert in host cell membrane.
D) A nucleocapsid is formed and viral spikes insert in host cell membrane
E) All of the choices occur

D

Host range is limited by ________.

A) type of nucleic acid in the virus
B) age of the host cell
C) type of host cell receptors on cell membrane
D) size of the host cell
E) All of the choices are correct

C

Fungal infections are known as ________ and can be acquired from environmental or clinical sources.

A) secondary infections
B) vegetative infections
C) mycoses
D) saprobic infections
E) parasitoses

C

During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a(n) ________.

A) endospore
B) cyst
C) seed
D) trophozoite
E) sporozoa

B

The core of every virus particle always contains ________.

A) DNA
B) capsomeres
C) enzymes
D) DNA and RNA
E) either DNA or RNA

E

The development of antiviral drug therapy is difficult because ________.

A) viruses are obligate intracellular parasites so the host cell can be harmed by the drug
B) viruses do not have specific replication cycles that can be targeted
C) viruses do not contain genetic material
D) their life cycles do not have distinctive stages

A

A naked virus has only a(n) ________.

A) capsid
B) capsomere
C) nucleocapsid
D) envelope
E) antigenic surface

C

The process of dissolving the envelope and capsid to release the viral nucleic acid is ________.

A) adsorption
B) penetration
C) uncoating
D) synthesis
E) assembly

C

Put the phases of the life cycle of animal viruses in the correct order:

A. Assembly

B. Penetration

C. Release

D. Adsorption

E. Synthesis

F. Uncoating

D B F E A C

Bacteria often have a gel-like layer composed of glycocalyx substance. When the glycocalyx is gelatinous consistency, this layer forms a

A) lipid membrane
B) capsule
C) cell wall
D) slime mold

B

An ideal antiviral drug would be one that ________.

A) disrupted an integral viral process while causing little damage to the host cell
B) killed the host cell thereby depriving the virus of its means to translate proteins
C) killed both the virus and the host cell
D) prevents translation by the host cell ribosome, depriving the virus of a means to replicate

A

Antimicrobials that are effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed ________.

A) antibiotics
B) narrow-spectrum drugs
C) semisynthetic drugs
D) synthetic drugs
E) broad-spectrum drugs

E

Selective toxicity refers to ________.

A) damage to pathogenic organisms
B) damage to prokaryotic cell membranes
C) damage to the target organisms but not host cell
D) damage to nucleic acids
E) None of the choices are correct

C

Which therapeutic index value would be the drug of choice?

A) 20
B) 10
C) 1
D) 0.1
E) Any value would be equally effective

A

A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobials in broth, and then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up?

A) Kirby-Bauer
B) Antibiogram
C) E-test
D) MIC
E) Therapeutic index (TI)

D

If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a(n) ________ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B.

A) smaller
B) equal
C) larger

A

A 12-year-old male is admitted to the pediatric unit due to persistent upper respiratory symptoms and respiratory distress. The patient has a history of developmental delay, chronic lung disease, and frequent respiratory infections. Upon assessment, the RN notes the patient to have a fever, moderate respiratory rate, productive cough, and large amount of nasal secretions. Upon report from the patient's mother, the patient has been on a 3-week course of antibiotics with no improvement in symptoms. The medical team completes a respiratory infection workup and the patient is diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) superinfection.

Which of the following statements by the mother demonstrates a proper understanding of the teaching?

A)My son has an extremely resistant form of MRSA causing his prolonged illness
B) My son developed simultaneous bacterial infections and his antibiotics were not treating his MRSA infection.
C) My son developed a MRSA superinfection following suppression of normal resident species in his lungs by the antibiotics he was taking to treat his initial infection
D) My son has pneumonia caused by a virus

C

The term infection refers to

A) microorganisms colonizing the body
B) contact with microorganisms
C) contact with pathogens
D) pathogens penetrating host defenses

D

Opportunistic pathogens

A) cause disease in every individual
B) cause disease in compromised individuals
C) are always pathogens
D) have well-developed virulence factors

B

Virulence factors include all the following except ________.

A) capsules
B) ribosomes
C) exoenzymes
D) endotoxins
E) exotoxins

B

The minimum amount of microbes in the inoculating dose is the ________.

A) virulence factor
B) indigenous biota
C) infectious dose
D) endotoxin
E) minimal dose

C

Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of ________.

A) adhesive factors
B) exotoxins
C) hemolysins
D) antiphagocytic factors
E) exoenzymes

E

The day after she skinned her knee climbing a tree, your little sister complains of chills and feeling dizzy. Upon examining her, you find she does have an elevated body temperature and the scrape on her knee looks bright red and is oozing fluid. Does she have a local or systemic infection?

A) Local
B) Systemic

A

A 36-year-old female is bit by a raccoon and presents to the emergency department with mild trauma to her right lower extremity. Following a triage assessment, the patient's wound is cleaned and dressed. The physician verbalizes concern that the patient may have been exposed to rabies from the bite. One role of the RN is to provide education to the patient regarding rabies infection and its transmission.

Rabies is an example of this type of infection, which is indigenous to animals but naturally transmissible to humans ________.

A) mixed infection
B) focal infection
C) zoonotic infection
D) latent infection

C

If the patient develops rabies infection, the time from the bite to the appearance of symptoms is referred to as the ________.

A) incubation period
B) prodromal stage
C) period of invasion
D) convalescent period

A

Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are

A) in food
B) the patient's own normal biota
C) on fomites
D) in the air
E) transmitted from one person to another

B

Exotoxins are ________.

A) proteins
B) antiphagocytic factors
C) secretions that always target nervous tissue
D) lipopolysaccharides
E) all the above

A

The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches is the

A) prodromal stage
B) convalescent stage
C) incubation period
D) period of invasion
E) None of the choices are correct.

A

The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed a(n) ________.

A) syndrome
B) symptom
C) sign
D) pathology
E) inflammation

B

All infectious diseases ________.

A) are contagious
B) occur only in humans
C) are caused by microorganisms or their products
D) are caused by vectors
E) involve viruses as the pathogen

C

Which of the following is not a phenotypic method of identification?

A) Morphology
B) Gram stain reaction
C) Acid-fast reaction
D) Antibody response
E) Endospores

D

Microorganisms can be identified from a patient sample using biochemical tests based on the premise that ________.

A) organisms have a unique combination of metabolic enzymes that are displayed when color-changing dyes are utilized to demonstrate their physiological response to specific substrates
B) organisms display specific antigens that can be bound by color-changing antibodies that allow the clinician to locate and identify the pathogen
C) organisms will not grow on certain media types and can be selected for on others
D) bacteriophages infect certain bacterial cells and the specificity can be used to identify the organism

A

An ELISA test sent for HIV screening came back with a positive result. The nurse educates the patient that this test is highly sensitive with low specificity. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates understanding of this teaching?

A) It is possible that this is a false-positive result since the test may have been positive for something other than HIV
B) It is unlikely that this is a false-positive result since the test is so specific it does not miss a positive result.
C) It is possible that this is a false-positive result since low specificity means the tests are less accurate
D) It is unlikely that this is a false-positive result since it is highly sensitive

A

The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others is ________.

A) cross reaction
B) agglutination
C) precipitation
D) specificity
E) sensitivity

D

Which of the following is not one of the main categories for identifying microbes?

A) Radiologic
B) Phenotypic
C) Genotypic
D) Immunologic

A

Phenotypic methods of identifying microorganisms in a patient sample are characterized as those that ________.

A) directly examine the organism's appearance or behavior, which includes its metabolic abilities, environmental preferences and drug susceptibilities
B) analyze the genetic makeup of the microorganism, which conclusively diagnoses the infection
C) make use of the patient's antibodies to precipitate the microorganism out of solution, or agglutinate the antigens in the sample
D) make use of color-changing antibodies directed against the microbe that will become visible to the naked eye when bound

A

The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is ________.

A) cross reaction
B) agglutination
C) precipitation
D) specificity
E) sensitivity

E

A serum titer involves ________.

A) serially diluting a serum sample
B) determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction
C) determining the highest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction
D) the Western blot method

C

The primary advantage of genotypic methods of identification is ________.

A) they are easier than any other methods
B) they are less expensive than other methods
C) they are widely available
D) culturing of the organism is not required
E) All of the choices are correct

D

Protective features of the skin include all but ________.

A) keratinized surface
B) resident biota
C) antimicrobial peptides
D) high pH
E) lysozyme

D

What material in skin cells provides protection from abrasions, water damage, and microorganism entry?

A) Lysozyme
B) Keratin
C) Sweat
D) Sebum
E) Salt

B

If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a(n) ________ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B.

A) smaller
B) equal
C) larger

A

Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestines are known as ________.

A) prebiotics
B) probiotics
C) lantibiotics
D) phytobiotics
E) riboswitches

A

Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called ________.

A) opportunistic pathogens
B) normal biota
C) indigenous biota
D) true pathogens
E) micropathogens

D

he stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is the ________.

A) prodromal stage
B) convalescent stage
C) incubation period
D) period of invasion
E) None of the choices are correct

D

Immunologic methods of identifying microorganisms in a patient sample are characterized as those that ________.

A) rely on the specificity of antibodies to target a single antigen
B) directly examine the organism's appearance or behavior, which includes its metabolic abilities, environmental preferences and drug susceptibilities
C) analyze the genetic makeup of the microorganism, which conclusively diagnoses the infection
D) amplifies the microbial DNA in the patient's sample and during the process, identifies the organism through the use of known primers

A

Which of the following is not a mode of action of antiviral drugs?

A) Block penetration
B) Block transcription and translation
C) Inhibit DNA synthesis
D) Block maturation
E) Bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

E

Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's microbiota often cause ________.

A) nephrotoxicity
B) superinfections
C) allergic reactions
D) drug toxicity
E) mutation

B

Opportunistic pathogens

A) cause disease in every individual
B) cause disease in compromised individuals
C) are always pathogens
D) have well-developed virulence factors
E) None of the choices is correct

B

A mother brings her 8-year-old daughter into an urgent care clinic. The child has a dry, flaky, and peeling rash around her mouth.

In the lab, the collected specimen is Gram-stained and inoculated onto blood agar. Microscopic analysis of the slide reveals gram-positive cocci arranged in grapelike clusters, while the blood agar produces round, creamy colonies with clear areas of hemolysis. Which of the following would be the most likely causative organism?

A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Human herpesvirus 3
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B

The lab results indicate that the coagulase test was performed. Which result would be consistent with a diagnosis of S. aureus infection?

A) The sample remains liquid
B) The sample completely coagulates
C) The sample turns yellow and coagulates
D) The sample turns yellow and remains liquid

B

What material in skin cells provides protection from abrasions, water damage, and microorganism entry?

A) Lysozyme
B) Keratin
C) Sweat
D) Sebum
E) Salt

B

What enzyme is not found in Staphylococcus epidermidis but is found in Staphylococcus aureus?

A) Peroxidase
B) Catalase
C) Lysozyme
D) Coagulase
E) Lipase

D

MRSAs are Staphylococcus aureus strains that are ________.

A) resistant to mupirocin
B) responsive to mupirocin
C) resistant to penicillin derivatives
D) responsive to penicillin derivatives
E) related to Streptococcus pyogenes

C

Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with ________.

A) croup
B) mumps
C) influenza
D) measles (rubeola)
E) rubella

D

All of the following pertain to measles (rubeola) except ________.

A) it is transmitted by direct contact with the rash
B) humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen
C) secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis can occur
D) it involves a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
E) dry cough, sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis are symptoms

A

If a person who has never been infected with the varicella zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, the first person will come down with ________.

A) Shingles
B) chicken pox

B

Transmission of the pathogen of Leishmaniasis is by the ________.

A) reduviid "kissing" bug
B) tsetse fly
C) anopheles mosquito
D) sand fly
E) hard-bodied tick

D

Varicella zoster virus (human herpesvirus-3) ________.

A) uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry
B) becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes
C) has humans as its reservoir
D) causes chickenpox and shingles
E) All of the choices are correct

E

A delayed response to a specific antigen is provided by

A) adaptive immunity
B) innate immunity
C) inflammation

A

Nonspecific immunity is another name for

A) adaptive immunity
B) innate immunity
C) cell-mediated immunity
D) acquired immunity

B

If someone had a cut in their skin through which a bacterium entered, but that bacterium was then destroyed by a neutrophil, this would be an example of

A) failed external adaptive immunity, but successful innate immunity
B) failed innate immunity, but successful adaptive immunity
C) failed external innate immunity, but successful internal innate immunity
D) failed external immunity, but successful internal acquired immunity

C

Which of the statements is incorrect regarding the similarities and differences between the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems?

A) Although the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems run virtually parallel to each other, blood and lymphatic fluid never mixes
B) Both the cardiovascular system and the lymphatic system comprise a series of vessels that run roughly parallel to each other
C) The cardiovascular system is a closed circuit, whereas the lymphatic system directs fluid in one direction only
D) The cardiovascular system has a pump (the heart) to circulate blood, whereas the lymphatic system has no pumping mechanism

A

Most cases of septicemia are caused by ________.

A) fungi
B) viruses
C) prions
D) bacteria
E) all the above

D

Yersinia pestis ________.

A) was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent
B) has humans as an endemic reservoir
C) does not respond to antimicrobial drugs
D) is usually transmitted by a flea vector
E) All of the choices are correct.

D

The causative agent of Lyme disease is ________.

A) Ixodes scapularis
B) Borrelia hermsii
C) Borrelia burgdorferi
D) Ixodes pacificus
E) Leptospira interrogans

C

Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics except it ________.

A) is more commonly found in adults
B) is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva
C) produces sudden leukocytosis
D) has a 30- to 50-day incubation
E) no exceptions. All the above

A

Which of the following is not true of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)?

A) Affects mostly newborns and babies
B) An exotoxin-mediated disease
C) Toxin causes bullous lesions
D) Split in skin occurs between the dermis and epidermis
E) Split in skin occurs within the epidermis

D

The concept of "immunologically privileged" explains why the CNS ________.

A) has a greater immune response than the rest of the body
B) has a reduced immune response compared to the rest of the body
C) has a completely different set of immune responses
D) has more MHC markers than other tissues
E) All of the choices are correct

B

he onset of AIDS occurs

A) simultaneously with HIV
B) after decreasing levels of viral antigen
C) with increasing levels of pathogenic bacteria
D) with decreasing levels of T cells

D

Which is incorrect about shigellosis?

A) Outbreaks have occurred in day care centers
B) Watery diarrhea with bloody, mucoid stools and abdominal cramps
C) It frequently involves septicemia
D) It is also called dysentery

B

Which organ of the GI tract has a large commensal population of microorganisms?

A) stomach
B) small intestines
C) large intestines
D) mouth
E) all the above

C

The most common infectious disease in humans is ________.

A) the common cold
B) dental caries
C) pharyngitis
D) diarrhea
E) gastritis

B

All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni except it ________.

A) is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water
B) causes fever and a watery stool
C) infects the stomach
D) has gram-negative curved rods with darting motility

C

The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its ________.

A) Capsule
B) neurotoxin
C) invasive enzymes
D) enterotoxin
E) All of the choices are correct.

D

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is ________.

A) water and electrolyte replacement
B) antimicrobials
C) antitoxin
D) surgery
E) None of the choices are correct

A