Question 1 To whom does a veterinary technician student apply to take the VTNE?
Answers: AAVSB NAVTA State Veterinary Board AVMA
AAVSB
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2
What is the most severe penalty a veterinary board may impose?
Answers: Revocation of a license Monetary fine imprisonment Closing hospital
Revocation of a license
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3
who has the ultimate decision making authority over the care provided to an owned animal?
Answer: Veterinarian Veterinary Technician Health Department Owner
owner
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4
Preventing employment related accidents and illness is under the enforcement of?
Answer: EPA DEA AWA OSHA
OSHA
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5
All of the following are true about the veterinary technician code of ethics except?
Answers: it provides disciplinary procedures to members it communicates the professions ideals ethical standards are less stringent than those required by law serves as a general guide for professional ethical conduct
Ethical standards are less stringent than those required by law
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6
approximately how many recommended and essential tasks are listed in the CVTEA handbook?
Answers: 250 350 450 550
350
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7
Animals used in research facilities and teaching institutions are registered by which government agency?
Answers: AVMA AWA (USDA) State Board HSUS
AWA (USDA)w
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8
Which organization or agency accredits veterinary technology program in the United States?
they are eligible to use one of the following designations granted by their state. Which designation is not granted?
Answer: Accredited Certified Registered Licensed
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11
All of the following are rules for medical records except?
Answers:
Records can be written in any color ink desired the author of the entry must date and initial each time an entry is made correction fluid may never be used use standard and approved abbreviations
Records can be written in any color ink desired
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12
The results of a diagnostic test would be considered which part of the problem oriented medical record progress notes?
Answers: Subjective Objective Assessment Plan
Objective
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13
The client observations are used to formulate which part of the problem oriented medical record progress notes?
Answers:
Subjective objective Assessment plan
subjective
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Which of the following correctly defines the objective portion of the record?
the reason for the visit
history
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15
which of the following correctly defines the plan portion of the record?
information gathered from the patient such as physical exam and diagnostic workup
definitive or possible diagnosis
surgery
diagnostics to be performed
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16
which of the following is false for the medical record?
It is a legal document it should be accurate and legible it must be handwritten it is a resource to the client
it must be handwritten
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17
only standard abbreviations should be used in medical record keeping
true false
true
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18
if a mistaken entry in a medical record has occurred
what. is the method by which it is corrected?
the page of the medical record is removed and replaced with a new one
the entry is erased
white out is used to cover the mistaken entry
the entry has a single horizontal line placed through it
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19
which of the following entried would be considered an assessment as part of the problem oriented medical record progress notes
vomiting alot temperature of 101.5 degrees F suspect otitis externa ( ear infection) administer 500mg keflex PO BID
suspect otitis externa (ear infection)
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20
the interview should end with?
a summation of the clients recitation an open ended question giving the clients positive feedback about the care they give their pet encouragement for the client that the pet will be okay
a summation of the clients recitation
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appearing non judgemental about the client's answers to the questions is?
unnecessary a way to ensure that you get accurate information only effective with open ended questions not really the professional way to handle clients-they want your input
a way to ensure that you get accurate information
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22
open ended questions?
are the ones that solicit a narrative from the responder should be the type of question that you open the interview with provide the opportunity to gain the most information all of the above
all of the above
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23
a clients bias against you or the profession might be demonstrated in a non verbal clue such as?
crossed arms willing to make eye contact fidgeting yelling at you
crossed arms
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24
standing behind the exam table while taking a patients history
puts you in a position of authority distances you from the client.. making you appear uncaring protects you from the pet until you get to know it all of the above
distances you from the client.. making you appear uncaring
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direct questions?
can be used to clarify specific information provided by the client
are important when needing vital information quickly
emergencies
may limit the amount of information receive if used exclusively
all of the above
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26
one technique to make it easier for people to recall a time frame
link time to specific events such as holidays ask for very specific dates and times
act really disappointed if they cant remember putting pressure on them to do better
ask it in the form of an open ended questions
link time to specific events such as holidays
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27
bias is introduced when?
the interviewer acts annoyed or disappointed with an answer
an answer that fits the interviewers interpretation of the situation is encouraged the client provides an answer to a question
not based on what happened
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28
pick the direct question out of the following four choices?
how old is rufus?
can you explain to me how darby acts duringa storm?
how does pearl react to other dogs on your walks?
what is johns history?
how old is rufus?
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29
which of following is an open ended question?
buffy is how old?
what type of diet do you feed sampson?
is toby neutered?
would you like to tell me whats going on with lucys foot?
would you like to tell me whats going on with lucys foot?
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30
the gentle leader?
is a muzzle
should have the neck strap adjusted before the nose strap
if properly fitted
the nose loop should easily be pulled over the tip of nose
is dangerous because it prevents the dog from being able to vomit
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31
when the gentle leader head collar is fitted appropriately the dog will not be able to take it off
true
false
true
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32
the most common fitting mistake is getting the neck strap too tight
false
true
false
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33
when getting ready to work with your assigned PACT animal
the first thing the student should do is?
look at the medical record
talk to tina spencer
check the attending veterinarian appointment book
obtain the gentle leader if the animal is a dog
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34
the red leads in the kennel area are for what type of use?
emergencies routine dog walks baths laboratory use
emergencies
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35
animals housed in the veterinary technology program at columbus state community college are governed by?
USDA IACUC FDA AVMA
USDA
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36
which of the following IS NOT a source for acquisition of our animals in the vet tech program
commercial breeders
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37
when determining the financial success of a veterinary practice
the most important indicator is?
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38
a veterinary practices website should?
be updated on a regular basis
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39
who performs surgery in the veterinary practice?
veterinarian
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40
a document that is a visual representation of how authority and responsibility flow between the various areas of the practice or practice staff is called?
organizational chart
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who performs animal restraint in the veterinary practice?
veterinary assistant
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42
which of the following statements is the most accurate when it comes to describing marketing for a veterinary practice?
any effort the practice makes to retain or obtain clients and make the practice more visible in the community
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who performs basic animal husbandry in the veterinary practice?
kennel attendant
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44
the individual typically responsible for all activities of the practice and running the hospital in conjunction with the practice owner is referred at as the?
hospital administrator
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45
a client's judgment regarding the quality of medicine provided at a veterinary practice is generally based on?
the level of service the client receives
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46
one of the most important reasons for holding regular employee evaluations is to?
improve the employees performance
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47
to minimize the amount of time clients have to wait in the reception area
there should be how many examination rooms available for each veterinarian working on a particular day?
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48
one of the most common selection criteria used by clients when choosing a veterinary practice is?
location
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49
one of the main reasons inventory management is so important in a veterinary practice is that
inventory is a significant expense for a practice
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50
complaints against veterinary practices are usually caused by?
ineffective communication
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51
increased competition
new technology
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who makes appointments in the veterinary practice?
receptionist
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53
when it comes to determining compensation for an employee
it is best to base the employee's pay on
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54
placement of the laboratory and pharmacy in a central location is very important because?
they are often used for examining and treating both outpatients and hospitalized patients
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who performs patient assessment in the veterinary practice?
veterinary technician
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56
the best way to ensure that all of the major pieces of equipment in a veterinary practice are cleaned and maintained on a regular basis is to?
assign each member of the team a specific piece of equipment to clean and maintain
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57
A cat that has a crouched body posture with tail tucked
pupils dilated
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A dog with ears and eyes forward
head up
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59
Posture where dog will jump up with tail wagging and try to lick person's or animal's face. Cats do not specifically exhibit but will have ears erect and head up with tail sometimes straight up and twitching. Which posture is this?
greeting
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60
Posture that is not exhibited by the cat but dog will rollover and expose their underbelly possibly urinating or defecating at that time. Which posture is this?
submission
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61
Violet
the spayed female Goldendoodle is lunging at the fence when small children are playing in the neighbor's yard. She has her hackles raised
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62
Alvin
a mixed breed neutered male female dog does not like the UPS man. He will bare his teeth and raise his hackles when she sees him. His body is crouched with his tail tucked and his ears pinned back. He growls at him and tries to bite him when he approaches him. He is exhibiting which canine body posture?
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63
Who is legally responsible if a client gets injured in a veterinary practice by their own pet?
Veterinarian/practice owner
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64
Which of the following can be left on an unattended animal to avoid being bit during procedures and facilitate their removal from cage?
Elizabethan Collar
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65
which of the following simulates scruffing in the cat?
Clipnosis
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66
which of the following are included in lateral recumbency?
Answer: Down legs are held to avoid animal getting up cat is scruffed to avoid injury to personnel
animal is lying on its side All of the above
all of the above
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67
which of the following filters a dogs vision to help reduce anxiety?
calming cap
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68
which of the following statements is FALSE?
muzzles can be left on an unattended animal
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which of the following gives you better control of a dogs head?
gentle leader
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70
which of the following statements is false concerning dog baths?
it is recommended to use sprayer to wet face and ears.
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71
Which of the following species is more likely to have loose subcutaneous tissue?
cat
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72
When administering an intramuscular or subcutaneous injection
immediately before you inject the medication you should?
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73
Which of the following is true regarding an intravenous route of administration?
Answer: They are usually administered through an indwelling intravenous catheter In the dog
the jugular vein is the most common vein used The cephalic vein is a common vein for IV catheter placement used in both the dog and cat Both a and c
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74
aural administration of medication refers to?
placement of medication in the ears
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75
Which of the following is not considered a method of topical application of medication?
parenteral
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76
The preferred method
at CSCC
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77
Which of the following statements are true for nail trimming?
The ungual process is where the blood vessels and nerve ending are located in the nail.
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78
Which of the following is NOT considered an intramuscular injection site in the dog?
cranial back
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79
enteral administration of medications is most consistent with?
oral route of administration
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80
when bathing a dog
cotton balls are placed in the external ear canal?
Answer: to prevents the horizontal canal from getting wet prior to the bathing process after a bath in order to dry the ears both a and b
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81
When a unique sound is linked to a food reward it is called a?
conditioned reinforcer
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82
Which two learning theories are normally utilized together?
counterconditioning and desensitization
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83
A large dog is brought in for a nail trim. First attempts to restrain the dog for the procedure are not successful. The dog is muzzled and with additional help held in lateral recumbency while the nails are trimmed. This type of modification being utilized with this dog would be called?
flooding
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84
Avoiding an aversive stimulus by performing a desirable behavior
is called?
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85
Removing something pleasant or rewarding when an undesirable behavior occurs
is called?
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86
Positively reinforcing the movements that are offered by an animal in the direction or to achieve a predetermined end behavior is called:
shaping
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87
Marking an interesting or unique behavior the animal naturally offers is called:
capturing
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88
Variable rate of reinforcement is given when the animal is performing the correct behavior
what percentage of the time?
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A cue can be added once an animal has successfully repeated a behavior?
10-15 times
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90
Positive reinforcement or rewards should be given in what time frame after a correct behavior is exhibited?
1 second
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91
When a dog is exposed to a thunderstorm tape at low volume that is gradually increased in volume overtime to diminish the dog's reaction to the noise
this modification is called?
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92
Giving something pleasant or rewarding immediately following a desirable behavior
is called?
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93
When an animal is first learning a behavior the rate of reinforcement should be?
100% of the time
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94
We rewarded a puppy for jumping up on us when it was a baby. As this dog reaches adulthood
we ignore them for jumping up on us by turning our back on them
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95
Adding an aversive stimulus immediately following an undesirable behavior
is called?
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96
Dogs become sexually and socially mature by 6 months of age.
false
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97
A cat with its body arched
tail erect and ears flattened to its head is exhibiting which behavior?
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98
Providing adequate exercise is important in preventing unwanted dog behaviors.
true
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99
Which drug is FDA approved for the treatment of separation anxiety in dogs?
chlomicalm
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100
A cat carrier should not be taken out of the closet until the very minute it will be needed to take the cat to the veterinary clinic.
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