ANSC 318 exam 3

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146 Terms

1
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T/F: During phase II of lactation (mid lactation), maintenance of body weight receives the LOWEST priority.
True
2
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How does adding fat to the diet of a performance horse improve its endurance?
Horses that have been adapted to a fat-supplemented diet will be able to exercise for a longer period of time before they shift to anaerobic metabolism. The use of muscle glycogen will be spared for use later during the period of exercise compared to the horse that is not adapted to a fat-supplemented diet.
3
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During which month of the year will adding fat to the diet of a pig fed in Texas MOST likely IMPROVE feed efficiency (i.e. reduce amount of feed required to produce a pound of gain)?
July
4
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Dairy cows are typically in thin body condition after phase II of lactation. It is recommended that cows have a body condition score of 3.5 at calving. From the end of phase II until calving, when is the best time to put body condition back on the cow?
Phase III of lactation
5
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List TWO amino acids that are available commercially in synthetic form for use in pig diets.
Lysine and methionine
6
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During which production phase(s) is it recommended that urea not be included in the ration for dairy cows (there may be more than one correct answer)?
Phases I and II
7
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In dairy cows, peak mild production occurs during phase \_____ of lactation and peak dry matter intake occurs during phase \_____ of lactation.
Phases I and II
8
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Which of the following is an advantage to having mares at the recommended body condition score at foaling compared to having them too thin at foaling?

I. Fewer cycles per conception
II. Delayed pregnancy
Fewer cycles per conception
9
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Which item on a feed tag is the "BEST" indicator of the digestible energy content for a horse?
Crude fiber
10
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T/F: Compared to corn, wheat is MORE likely to cause milk fat depression in dairy cows.
True
11
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Which of the following feeding scenarios would a sudden change in the diet of lactating dairy cow would cause a depression in the percentage of fat produced milk?

I. Reduction in the proportion of roughage in the diet

II. Increase in the particle size of the roughage portion of the diet

III. Use of a different forage in the diet that had a higher total fiber content
Reduction in the proportion of roughage in the diet
12
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For which feed will bioavailability of phosphorus be the LOWEST?

I. Corn
II. Dicalcium phosphate
III. Fish meal
IV. Meat and bone meal
Corn
13
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For which of the following feeds will the heat increment be the LOWEST?

I. Corn grain
II. Bermudagrass hay
III. Animal rendered fat
Animal rendered fat
14
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What physiological function receives the LOWEST priority during phase I of lactation?
Maintenance
15
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Which group of pigs has a lower dietary requirement for essential amino acids?

I. Porcine somatotropin [pST] treated pigs
II. non pST treated pigs
Non- pST treated pigs
16
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T/F: The protein quality of cereal grain by-product feedstuffs is SIMILAR to the protein quality of the original cereal grain.
True
17
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Adding fat to a commercial horse feed containing 14% crude protein will \__________ the protein:calorie ratio.
Decrease
18
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The LOWER CRITICAL TEMPERATURE of a growing pig will be \______________ than the LOWER CRITICAL TEMPERATURE of a sow.
Higher
19
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Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines the EFFECTIVE FIBER of a feedstuff?

I. Amount of total fiber
II. Particle size of the feed
III. Buffering capacity of the feed
Amount of total fiber
20
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Which of the following protein feedstuffs would be "best" to feed growing horses to ensure that amino acid requirements are met?

I. Canola meal
II. CSM
III. SBM
IV. Peanut meal
Soybean meal
21
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An increase in the effective fiber level of a lactating dairy cow ration will cause:

I. Rumen pH to decrease
II. Milk fat levels to decrease
III. Milk fat levels to increase
IV. Rumen pH to stabilize
Milk fat levels to increase
22
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Dairy cows fed a high-concentrate diet will have a HIGHER rumen concentration of \___________ than dairy cows fed a high-roughage diet.
Propionic acid
23
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In pigs, the calcium to phosphorus ratio [Ca:P] should be formulated to be in what ranges?
1:1 to 1.5:1
24
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It is recommended that a 1200 lb horse consumes at least \______lbs of forage per day.
12
25
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Which of the following grains will LEAST likely cause milk fat depression in lactating dairy cows?

I. Whole corn
II. Steam-flaked corn
III. Cracked or dry-rolled corn
Whole corn
26
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The metabolic precursor of milk fat synthesis is \_______?
Acetic acid
27
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The rumen pH of a dairy cow will likely fluctuate more [go up and down throughout the day] for which of the following cows?

I. Cows fed forages and grain supplements separately
II. Cows fed a total mixed ration
Cows fed forages and grain supplements separately
28
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Digestible energy requirements are increased \______% above maintenance in horses that are exercised at an intense level.
100%
29
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Which of the following is an ADVANTAGE to using a traditional feeding system, where forages and concentrates are fed separately, compared to using the total mixed ration feeding system for dairy cows.

I. Cost of grazing forages is less than cost of harvesting forages
II. Cows will produce more milk
Cost of grazing forages is less than cost of harvesting forages
30
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T/F: The optimal body condition score (1 to 9) for a mare prior to foaling is 4.
False
31
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T/F: The bioavailability of phosphorus from corn is higher for pigs than cows
False
32
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Which physiological function receives HIGHEST priority during phase III of lactation?
Reproduction
33
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Which of the following protein supplements has the HIGHEST relative lysine value [concentration of lysine relative to amount of protein]?

I. Blood meal
II. SBM
III. Canola meal
IV. Peanut meal
Blood meal
34
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Briefly describe one strategy that can be used to reduce the amount of phosphorus excreted in pig manure.
Phase feeding
35
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List the optimal range in body condition score (BCS) for the performance horse.
5 to 6
36
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The following are all net energy values for alfalfa hay. Select the value below that most likely represents the net energy for growth [NEg] value of alfalfa hay.

I. 1.35 Mcal/kg
II. 1.31 Mcal/kg
III. 0.74 Mcal/kg
0.74 Mcal/kg
37
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Buffers can be added to lactating dairy cow rations to help prevent which of the following?

I. Milk fat depression
II. Ketosis
III. Mastitis
IV. Urinary calculi
V. Milk fat depression
VI. Milk fever
VII. Fatty liver syndrome
Milk fat depression
38
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Which of the following are TWO factors that will impact the NET ENERGY value of a feed for cattle.

I. Nutrient content of the feed, and the physiological function of the animal

II. The environmental conditions of animals, and physiological function of the animal

III. The environmental conditions of the animals, and the nutrient content of the feed
Nutrient content of the feed, and the physiological function of the animal
39
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Of the total feed required to produce hogs (conception to slaughter), what proportion is used by market hogs (weaning to slaughter)?
80
40
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Which of the following MICROMINERALS will MOST likely be deficient in growing pigs fed a corn:soybean ration?

I. Iron
II. Calcium
III. Copper
III. Magnesium
IV. Sodium
V. Sulfur
Iron
41
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Which of the following minerals are cations or alkalogenic minerals that are used to determine the cation-anion balance in dairy cow rations?

I. Sodium and potassium
II. Chlorine and sulfur
III. Copper and potassium
Sodium and potassium
42
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T/F: The proportion of fiber-loving microbes will DECREASE as rumen pH DECREASES
True
43
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T/F: When fat is added to horse rations, feed intake will DECREASE
True
44
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The protein: calorie ratio requirement [g CP per Mcal of DE] is LOWEST for what stage of horse production?
Mature mares at maintenance
45
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Which minerals are causing the most concern regarding the impact of animal waste on the quality of water?
Phosphorus and nitrogen
46
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This grain can be fed to horses without first being processed (cracked or rolled).
Oats
47
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Roughage value index is a measure of \________.
The time a cow chews per kg of feed
48
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T/F: Feed a calcium deficient diet to dairy cows during the dry period can help to prevent milk fever.
True
49
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Which of the following is an advantage to having mares at the recommended body condition score at foaling compared to having them too thin at foaling?

I. Fewer cycles per conception
II. Delayed pregnancy
Fewer cycles per conception
50
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Dairy cows are typically in thin body condition after phase II of lactation. It is recommended that cows have a body condition score of 3.5 at calving. From the end of phase II until calving, when is the best time to put body condition back on the cow?
Phase II of lactation
51
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Which of the following feeding scenarios for lactating dairy cows would most likely cause the fat content in milk to be reduced?
A reduction in the particle size of the forage used in the diet
52
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Dairy cows fed a high-concentrate diet will have a HIGHER rumen concentration of \______________ than dairy cows fed a high-roughage diet.
Propionic acid
53
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Dairy cows are typically in thin body condition after phase II of lactation. It is recommended that cows have a body condition score of 3.5 at calving. From the end of phase II until calving, when is the best time to put body condition back on the cow?
Phase III of lactation
54
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What is the correct ranking of physiological properties (highest to lowest) for Phase III lactating cows?
1. Reproduction
2. Growth
3. Maintenance
4. Lactation
55
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T/F: Compared to corn, wheat is MORE likely to cause milk depression in dairy cows.
True
56
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Which of the following protein supplements has the HIGHEST relative lysine value [concentration of lysine relative to amount of protein]?
Blood meal
57
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During which production phase(s) is it recommended that urea not be included in the ration for dairy cows (there may be more than one correct answer)?
Phase III
58
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T/F: Feeding paylean as a feed additive to pigs is an effective strategy to reduce the impact of swine production systems on the environment.
True
59
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Supplementing cows with grain is an effective strategy to prevent which of the following forage toxicity problems?
Nitrate toxicity
60
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One method of preventing milk fever in dairy cows is to feed a \_____________ cation-anion balance during phase V (transition period).
Negative
61
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The four essential amino acids that are likely to be limiting in swine rations
Lys, Met, Trp, Thr
62
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Which of the following compounds is most toxic to cattle?

I. Nitrate (NO3-)
II. Nitrite (NO2-
III. Ammonia (NH3)

63
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What is the most commonly used energy feed in finishing hog rations in the U.S.?
Corn
64
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Which of the following grain sources would most likely cause milk fat depression in lactating dairy cows?

I. Milo
II. Steam-flaked corn
III. Whole corn
IV. Rolled oats
Steam-flaked corn
65
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Which of the following feeds would have the "best" roughage value for use in lactating dairy cow rations?

I. Alfalfa pellets
II. Cracked corn
III. Corn silage
IV. Cottonseed meal
V. Long-stem alfalfa hay
VI. Peanut-hull pellets
Long-stem alfalfa hay
66
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The metabolic precursor for the synthesis of milk fat?
Acetic acid
67
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During the first stage of milk production, dairy cows are typically in a \_________ energy balance situation, whereas during the third stage of production, cows are typically in a \________ energy balance situation.
Negative; positive
68
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During the second stage of lactation, \__________ has the highest physiological priority, while \__________ has the lowest physiological priority.
Reproduction; maintenance
69
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Feeding fat to pigs will [increase/decrease] feed intake and [increase/decrease] the heat increment
Decrease; decrease
70
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For a lactating dairy cow, producing 80 lbs of milk in the 1st phase of lactation, which physiological function will require the most feed energy?
Lactation
71
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Which physiological function receives lowest priority during the last several months of lactation?
Lactation
72
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Of the total feed required to produce hogs (conception to slaughter), what proportion is used by market hogs (weaning to slaughter)?
80
73
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Roughage value is a measure of \___________.
The time a cow chews per kg of feed
74
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The avg body condition score of a mare at foalng should be \_________?
6-7
75
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Which two nutrients are causing the most problems with regards to environmental concerns of concentrated animal feeding operations?
N and P
76
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A mature, idle horse weighing 1300 lbs requires 20 Mcal of DE per day for maintenance. If this same horse were to perform work at a moderate level, what would its DE requirement be?
30
77
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T/F: Including fat in a pig's diet will reduce the heat increment
True
78
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T/F: In formulating grain mixes for pigs, one should maintain at least a 1:1 Ca:P ratio
True
79
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T/F: The proportion of available lysine is lower in cottonseed meal than in soybean meal
True
80
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T/F: Effective fiber is the property of a feed that causes a cow to chew
True
81
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T/F:Protein requirements are higher for large-frame growing steers than small-frame growing steers
True
82
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T/F: Including phytase enzyme in a pig's diet will reduce the total P needed in the diet
True
83
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T/F: The acetic acid concentration will increase as the proportion of grain in the diet decreases
False
84
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T/F: Urea contains 45% nitrogen, and 6.25% crude protein equivalence
False
85
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Which of the following protein supplements has the lower relative lysine value?

I. CSM
II. Fish meal
III. Corn gluten meal
IV. Peanut meal
V. Canola meal
Corn gluten meal
86
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Which of the following is the correct range for the Ca:P ratio for diets fed to horses and pigs?
1:1 to 1.5:1
87
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The protein:calorie ratio requirement [g CP per Mcal of DE] is LOWEST for:

I. Mature exercising horses
II. Lactating mares
III. Late-gestation pregnant mares
IV. Weanling horses
Mature exercising horses
88
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You have formulated a high-grain feedlot ration that contains 2% urea (DM basis). What is the total CP equivalent value of this ration?
5.6% CP equivalents
89
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How can dallisgrass toxicity be prevented in cattle?
- Shred mature dallisgrass to about 8" (cut off seed heads)
- Spread infected hay on ground
90
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In horses, amino acids from microbial protein synthesized from urea will be absorbed from the \____________.
Will not be absorbed
91
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Assuming optimal microbial fermentation conditions, one pound of urea has the potential to be converted into \_____ lbs of microbial protein.
2.81 lb
92
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During phase V (transition period), it is recommended that the ration be formulated for the correct dietary cation anion (DCAB) balance to help prevent milk fever. Which four nutrients are used to calculate DCAB?
Sodium, potassium, chlorine, sulfur
93
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Bermudagrass toxicity is most often associated with \___________.
Pulmonary emphysemia
94
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Wheatgrass toxicity is most often associated with \_____________.
Grass tetany
95
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Johnsongrass toxicity is most often associated with \___________.
Prussic acid poisoning
96
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Rule of thumb in feeding supplements to horses to prevent digestive upsets is not to feed more than \________ of the horses body weight per meal.
0.5%
97
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Mixing oat grain in with a commercial feed supplement (1:1 oats/supplement) that was formulated to meed requirements for growing horses will cause the Ca:P ratio to \________
Decrease
98
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Which of the following forage toxicity problems is caused by "ergot-like" fungus growth in the seed-heads of the forage plant?

99
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Nitrate (NO3-) concentrations are often elevated in what type of feed source?
Forages
100
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Factors that cause NO3- concentrations to be elevated
1. Drought
2. Frost damage
3. Shading
4. Herbicide treatment
5. High nitrite in soil