patho final

An increase in cell number would be described as:

hyperplasia

Metaplasia can lead to cancer.

true

Programmed cell death is referred to as:

apoptosis

Which of the following neutralizes reactive oxygen species:

endogenous:
glutathione [GSH]
cysteine
catalase
super oxide dismutase

exogenous:
vitamin C & E

Which is NOT true of caseous necrosis:

TRUE:

• tuberculous pulmonary infection

• combination of coagulative & liquefactive necrosis

• dead cells disintegrate but not digested by hydrolases

• soft & granular = clumped cheese

Nuclear pyknosis is:

nuclear shrinkage/condensation

An increase in the size of the heart in response to hypertension is an example of:

concentric hypertrophy

left ventricular hypertrophy

Dysplasia typically occurs next to cancer cells but is NOT an indicator of cancer.

FALSE

dysplasia is strong indicator of cancer

Inflammation is most commonly associated with which of the following:

necrosis

Cephalic refers to:

head

Serous membranes lining organs are referred to:

visceral membrane

The peritoneum surrounds the:

abdominal organs / cavity

Pleural membranes are associated with:

lung, blood vessels, nerves, bronchi

In an organ undergoing hypertrophy, you would expect to see:

organ muscle is thickening

During necrosis:

• inflammation

• phagocytosis

• affects multiple cells

• swelling [inc. cell size]

• organelle function, plasma membrane integrity, organelle membrane integrity lost early

• shrinkage

The description of the “cell eating itself” refers to:

autophagy

Most, but not all chemicals are toxic.

ALL CHEMICALS cause cell injury

An increase in superoxide dismutase would be expected to ______ oxidative stress.

decrease

Deprivation of oxygen would increase free radical production.

true

Regeneration of the liver in a liver transplant donor is an example of:

compensatory hyperplasia

Reperfusion injury occurs primarily due to:

hypoxia

Which of the following occurs due to action of lipases and the formation of soaps in the tissue:

fat necrosis

Anterior would be synonymous to:

ventral, front

Which transmitter is released in the somatic nervous system:

acetylcholine

Stimulation of nicotinic receptors in the ganglia would:

activate both SNS and PNS

Stimulation of which receptor would increase heart rate:

beta 1

Mydriasis would occur with activation of:

alpha 1
beta 2

Bronchodilation is mediated by which receptor:

beta 2

Survival functions are mediated by which of the following:

sympathetic nervous system
thoraco-lumbar outflow
transmitters: NE & EPI

Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors on blood vessels would:

vasoconstrict

The medical records describe that a patient is experiencing axillary pain. This would
refer to which location

where arm connects to shoulder

A patient experiencing appendicitis would have pain in which area:

bottom right side of abdomen

Blood is frequently drawn from which area:

cephalic, median cubital, and basilic veins

In the Apothecary system, liquid weight is based on:

one drop

A person with hepatomegaly would have:

enlarged liver

The abbreviation WDWN refers to a person’s:

well developed & well nourished

The suffix -emia refers to:

blood condition

In the Apothecary system, Gt stands for:

drop [singular]

A leukocyte would refer to a white cell.

true; white blood cell

When do cells become cancerous?

increased proliferation, no contact-inhibition
migration & invasion
micrometastasis [spread to distant organs via circulation]

The statement “Sarcoma begins in bone, cartilage, fat, muscle, blood vessels, or other
connective or supportive tissue” is:

true
mesenchymal origin

A tumor suppressor gene is the one that:

suppress cell proliferation

Which statement is INCORRECT about hyperplasia?

TRUE:
increase in cell number
dysplasia is related to hyperplasia

Benign tumors are poorly differentiated (anaplastic).

FALSE
benign tumors are well differentiated

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding UV rays- induced melanoma:

preventable

• epidemiology: squamous, basal, melano-carcinoma of skin

• formation of pyrimidine dimers

• activated t-suppressor cells leads to tumor clones

• ppl w/ defects in dna excision repair enzymes susceptible

Which microorganism causes gastric and esophageal cancers?

Helicobacter pylori

Which of the following is INCORRECT about the log-kill hypothesis?

TRUE:

• first order kinetics: kills constant fraction of cells rather than specific

• proliferating cell group / total tumor cell group

What stage of the cell cycle does DNA replication in cancer occur?

S phase

The process of tumor cells forming blood vessel-like tubes by themselves is called:

vascular mimicry

Tumor angiogenesis can be induced by:

genetic changes
hypoxia
glucose deprivation
oxidative & mechanical stress

Hypertension is the CLASS EFFECT of anti-VEGF agents used for anti-antigenic cancer
therapy.

TRUE

Ipilimumab blocks CTLA-4 to induce immunotherapy for the treatment of cancers. Here,
CTLA-4 is:

protein found on T cells
immune checkpoint

Which of the following is NOT an obstructive lung disease:

IS:
asthma
bronchitis & emphysema

The type of dyspnea that occurs when lying down and relieved by sitting upright is:

Orthopnea

In cystic fibrosis, there is failure of mucus to detach from ducts and slowed mucocillary
transport

TRUE

Atopy is a major risk factor for:

asthma

Which of the following can infect, survive and proliferate within a macrophage?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Which is CORRECT about latent tuberculosis:

• cannot transmit to others

• bacteria lives in body WITHOUT causing illness

• ppl do not feel sick; no symptoms

• positive skin test

• may develop TB if it isnt treated

Pulmonary arterial hypertension is primarily due to a pathology associated with:

right side heart failure
incurable

Raynaud’s phenomenon is a sign/symptom of:

PULMONARY ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION
chalky white or dusky blue fingers; can be provoked by cold

Which of the following is caused by the passage of solid particles into the lung?

aspiration

The hyaline membrane is composed of:

necrotic debris from type II pneumocytes mixed with fibrin

Aspiration can lead to bacterial pneumonia.

TRUE

Which SARS-CoV2 protein binds to host cell ACE-2 to gain cellular entry?a

spike protein

Renal dysfunction would be suggested by a(an) ________in serum creatinine.

increase

The best estimate of renal function would be:

glomerular filtration rate

Uremic frost refers to:

sweat evaporating skin & leaving urea
white fluffly residue
chronic kidney disease

The source of creatinine in plasma is:

muscles

Exophthalmia would occur in:

eyeballs

TK presents with an elevated TSH and decreased T4 levels. He would most likely be
diagnosed as:

hypothyroidism

An increase in TRH would be expected to:

increase TSH
thyroid hormone goes up

A patient presenting with tachycardia, anxiety, goiter, and weight loss would most likely
be expected to have

graves disease

Iodide is concentrated by which of the following:

follicle cell
thyroid gland

Most hypertensive patients are classified as which type of hypertension:

essential / primary HTN

Which of the following would represent the blood pressure when the heart is at rest?

diastolic

MP has a blood pressure of 150/90. She would be classified as:

stage I

Erythropoietin (EPO) is:

hormone from kidneys that increases production of RBC

Which of the following represents an excess of red blood cells:

Polycythaemia

Pulmonary edema and orthopnea would be symptoms associated with:

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
ARDS ?

The initiating factor for the development of atherosclerosis is:

damage to endothelial cells & leukocytes adhere to endothelium which thickens walls

Angina pectoris occurs as a result of blockages in which of the following:

coronary arteries

Increased HDL______ the risk of atherosclerosis.

lowers

Release of histamine is a major factor in which form of shock:

Distributive Shock: Anaphylatic

Ascites is more likely to be associated with:

right side heart failure

Backflow of blood in a heart valve is described as:

Regurgitation

A patient with atherosclerosis that is exhibiting pain exertion would be experiencing:

stable angina

A person taking a statin would be taking this for the treatment of:

atherosclerosis
CVD

A person with untreated hypertension could experience which of the following:

can lead to heart failure
heart attack
stroke

A person with thrombocytopenia would be at risk for:

low count of thrombocytes
increase in spleen size/activity
platelet consumption - ongoing clotting
auto antibodies

Which of the following is known as the “silent killer”.

hypertension

During shock, the body ______ blood flow to the kidneys.

shunts [defers]

Which arrhythmia is associated with the formation of blood clots that can subsequently lead to strokes and is frequently treated with an anticoagulant

Atrial fibrillation

During the development of heart failure, the renin angiotensin system is activated and leads to:

aldosterone secretion
increases GFR

Which of the following describes an elevated heart rate?

left ventricular failure
tachycardia

Hypertensive retinopathy refers to deleterious changes in which of the following:

narrowing of arteries in eye
retinal hemorrhage
swelling of optic nerve [papilledema]

Heart failure associated with hypertension occurs as a result of:

increase in afterload
causes heart to work harder; usually get left hypertrophy

GW is experiencing hypovolemic shock and would exhibit all of the following EXCEPT:

TRUE:

• inadequate vol. of blood to fill vascular system

• rapid thread pulse

• cold pale clammy skin

• intense thirst

• rapid respiration

• restlessness

• decreased urine volume

Myocardial ischemia would occur due to:

increase demand on heart
decreased supply, O2, CO2 poisoning, cocaine, anemia

Intermittent claudication would manifest which of the following symptoms:

[from thrombosis]
fatigue & pain on walking
relieved by rest

Which of the following is associated with the immune system:

WBC ? **