chpt 8

The skull consists of _____ cranial bones and _____ facial bones.

A. 8, 14

B. 7, 12

C. 10, 12

D. 5, 7

E. 9, 11

A. 8, 14

Protection of vital organs and hematopoiesis are two functions commonly named for the __________ skeleton.

A. axial

B. appendicular

A. axial

Which bone is not part of the axial skeleton?

A. Malleus

B. Sacrum

C. Clavicle

D. Atlas

E. Frontal bone

C. Clavicle

Which is not a cranial bone?

A. Vomer

B. Frontal

C. Occipital

D. Temporal

E. Parietal

A. Vomer

Which bone is not paired?

A. Maxilla

B. Mandible

C. Lacrimal

D. Nasal

E. Zygomatic

B. Mandible

Which of these skull bones cannot be easily palpated?

A. Frontal

B. Temporal

C. Occipital

D. Parietal

E. Ethmoid

E. Ethmoid

The _______ suture is the articulation between the occipital bone and both parietal bones.

A. lambdoid

B. coronal

C. sagittal

D. squamous

E. frontal

A. lambdoid

Which of these bones does not contribute to the region known as the pterion?

A. Frontal

B. Sphenoid

C. Occipital

D. Parietal

E. Temporal

C. Occipital

The zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the _________ process of the zygomatic bone form the zygomatic arch.

A. zygomatic

B. maxillary

C. frontal

D. temporal

E. mastoid

D. temporal

Which bones form the calvaria?

A. Occipital and parietals

B. Parietals and frontal

C. Occipital, parietals, and temporals

D. Occipital, parietals, and frontal

E. Occipital, parietals, temporals, and frontal

D. Occipital, parietals, and frontal

Which cranial fossa supports the cerebellum?

A. Anterior

B. Posterior

C. Middle

D. Lateral

E. Medial

B. Posterior

The basin in the floor of the cranium that accommodates the temporal lobe of the brain is the

A. posterior cranial fossa.

B. middle cranial fossa.

C. inferior cortical plate.

D. cribriform fissure.

E. sella turcica.

B. middle cranial fossa.

The sagittal suture joins the

A. left and right parietal bones.

B. left and right temporal bones.

C. parietal and occipital bones.

D. temporal and occipital bones.

E. frontal and parietal bones.

A. left and right parietal bones.

Which bone is not part of the nasal complex?

A. Nasal

B. Frontal

C. Inferior nasal concha

D. Temporal

E. Ethmoid

D. Temporal

Which bone bears the superior and inferior temporal lines?

A. Temporal

B. Occipital

C. Parietal

D. Frontal

E. Zygomatic

C. Parietal

What is the function of the nuchal lines?

A. Attachment for dura mater

B. Attachment for muscles and ligaments

C. Passageway for cranial nerves

D. Passageway for jugular vein

E. Grooves for dural sinuses

B. Attachment for muscles and ligaments

The portion of the sphenoid bone that houses the pituitary gland is the

A. pterygoid process.

B. pterygoid plate.

C. greater wing.

D. lesser wing.

E. sella turcica.

E. sella turcica.

Which is not a feature of the ethmoid bone?

A. Cribriform foramina

B. Perpendicular plate

C. Crista galli

D. Inferior nasal concha

E. Orbital plate

D. Inferior nasal concha

Which bone bears the infraorbital foramen?

A. Frontal

B. Temporal

C. Mandible

D. Maxilla

E. Zygomatic

D. Maxilla

Which is not a correct pairing of bone and feature?

A. Occipital bone - foramen magnum

B. Sphenoid bone - foramen rotundum

C. Temporal bone - carotid canal

D. Frontal bone - supraorbital foramen

E. Parietal bone - mental foramen

E. Parietal bone - mental foramen

The jugular foramen is located between the _____ and _____ bones.

A. temporal; parietal

B. sphenoid; ethmoid

C. sphenoid; occipital

D. occipital; temporal

E. occipital; parietal

D. occipital; temporal

What is the function of the cribriform plate?

A. Permits air to enter the cranial cavity to cool the brain

B. Provides large surface area for muscle attachment

C. Permits passage of the olfactory nerves

D. Forms part of the nasal septum

E. Articulates with the atlas for rotational head movement

C. Permits passage of the olfactory nerves

The pterygoid spines and optic canals are features of the _____ bone.

A. ethmoid

B. temporal

C. sphenoid

D. occipital

E. frontal

C. sphenoid

Which bone is not a facial bone?

A. Temporal

B. Mandible

C. Zygomatic

D. Maxilla

E. Nasal

A. Temporal

Which bone is unpaired?

A. Lacrimal

B. Vomer

C. Inferior nasal concha

D. Palatine

E. Maxilla

B. Vomer

The _________ process of the mandible articulates with the temporal bone.

A. alveolar

B. condylar

C. mastoid

D. temporal

E. coronoid

B. condylar

Which bones articulate with the zygomatic bone?

A. Frontal, temporal, and maxilla

B. Temporal and maxilla

C. Temporal and parietal

D. Frontal, parietal, and occipital

E. Temporal, sphenoid, and maxilla

A. Frontal, temporal, and maxilla

A perpendicular plate is a feature of the _____ and _____ bones.

A. palatine; lacrimal

B. ethmoid; sphenoid

C. palatine; ethmoid

D. nasal; lacrimal

E. maxilla; zygomatic

C. palatine; ethmoid

Which bone bears the mandibular fossa?

A. Maxilla

B. Temporal

C. Zygomatic

D. Mandible

E. Frontal

B. Temporal

The incisive foramen and palatine process are features of which bone?

A. Mandible

B. Palatine bone

C. Vomer

D. Maxilla

E. Temporal bone

D. Maxilla

Which of these is not a paranasal sinus?

A. Maxillary sinus

B. Ethmoid sinus

C. Sphenoid sinus

D. Mastoid sinus

E. Frontal sinus

D. Mastoid sinus

Which bones form the inferior margin of the orbit?

A. Maxilla and zygomatic

B. Frontal and sphenoid

C. Palatine and sphenoid

D. Lacrimal and ethmoid

E. Zygomatic and sphenoid

A. Maxilla and zygomatic

Which bone bears the greater and lesser cornua?

A. Maxilla

B. Stapes

C. Hyoid

D. Incus

E. Mandible

C. Hyoid

What is the location of the auditory ossicles?

A. Petrous part of temporal bone

B. Squamous part of temporal bone

C. Tympanic part of temporal bone

D. Auditory part of temporal bone

E. Mastoid part of temporal bone

A. Petrous part of temporal bone

Which is characteristic of a female skull, as compared to a male skull?

A. Chin pointed and triangular

B. Mandibular angle greater than 125 degrees

C. Little or no prominence to superciliary arches

D. External surface of occipital bone relatively smooth

E. All of the choices are characteristic of a female skull.

E. All of the choices are characteristic of a female skull.

Developmentally, the most significant growth in the skull occurs

A. between the ages of 5 and 10.

B. between the ages of 10 and 15.

C. before age 5.

D. between the ages of 15 and 20.

E. between the ages of 20 and 25.

C. before age 5.

The membranous sheets that connect developing cranial bones are called

A. sutures.

B. fontanelles.

C. intraosseous membranes.

D. craniochondral articulations.

E. ossicles.

B. fontanelles.

Of the following list, which describe the functions of the paranasal sinuses?
a: Warm and moisten inhaled air
b: Strengthen the bone
c: Provide resonance to the voice
a, b, and c

A. None of the listed functions describe those of the sinuses.

B. a only

C. b only

D. a and c

D. a and c

The ossicles are

A. three of the fourteen facial bones.

B. six of the fourteen cranial bones.

C. three small bones within each ear.

D. neck bones that articulate with the larynx (voice box).

C. three small bones within each ear.

The hyoid bone is located between the

A. mandible and the larynx.

B. maxilla and the mandible.

C. pharynx and the nasal cavity.

D. cranium and the axilla.

E. larynx and the trachea.

A. mandible and the larynx.

A skull with five gracile features and one robust feature is most likely a _______ skull.

A. male

B. female

B. female

Which fontanel is the last to close?

A. Anterior

B. Sphenoidal

C. Mastoid

A. Anterior

Which is not a function of the vertebral column?

A. Supporting the weight of the head

B. Maintaining upright body position

C. Passageway for cranial nerves

D. Passageway for spinal nerves

E. Protecting the spinal cord

C. Passageway for cranial nerves

What is the correct order for the vertebral regions, from superior to inferior?

A. Cervical - thoracic - sacral - coccygeal - lumbar

B. Thoracic - sacral - lumbar - thoracic - coccygeal

C. Cervical - thoracic - lumbar - sacral - coccygeal

D. Thoracic - coccygeal - cervical - lumbar - sacral

E. Thoracic - cervical - lumbar - coccygeal - sacral

C. Cervical - thoracic - lumbar - sacral - coccygeal

The vertebral column protects

A. the kidneys.

B. the spinal cord.

C. the spleen.

D. All of the choices are correct.

B. the spinal cord.

Which statement accurately describes the articulations between ribs and vertebrae?

A. Three of the cervical and ten of the thoracic vertebrae articulate with ribs.

B. Twelve thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs.

C. Two lumbar and ten thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs.

D. Two cervical, two lumbar and eight thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs.

E. Nine thoracic and three lumbar vertebrae articulate with the ribs.

B. Twelve thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs.

The vertebral column includes ___ cervical, ___ thoracic, and ___ lumbar vertebrae.

A. 5, 12, 7

B. 6, 14, 6

C. 7, 13, 4

D. 7, 12, 5

E. 6, 13, 5

D. 7, 12, 5

Which curves of the vertebral column are present at birth?

A. Thoracic and sacral

B. Lumbar and cervical

C. Lumbar and sacral

D. Cervical and thoracic

E. Lumbar and thoracic

A. Thoracic and sacral

Which of the spinal curves forms when a child is about 12 months of age?

A. Sacral

B. Lumbar

C. Cervical

D. Thoracic

E. Coccygeal

B. Lumbar

The _________ provide passageways for spinal nerves to exit the vertebral column and travel to other parts of the body.

A. vertebral foramina

B. intervertebral foramina

C. vertebral canals

D. articular facets

E. transverse foramina

B. intervertebral foramina

What is the inner, gelatinous region of each intervertebral disc called?

A. Annulus fibrosus

B. Nucleus pulposus

C. Lamella

D. Chondral ring

E. Articular ring

B. Nucleus pulposus

Transverse foramina are found in _____ vertebrae.

A. thoracic

B. lumbar

C. cervical

D. sacral

E. all

C. cervical

The vertebral processes that are most easily palpated along the midline of the back are the _____ processes.

A. transverse

B. inferior articular

C. superior articular

D. lamellar

E. spinous

E. spinous

The cervical and lumbar curvatures are ________ curves, and they arch ________.

A. primary; anteriorly

B. primary; posteriorly

C. secondary; anteriorly

D. secondary; posteriorly

C. secondary; anteriorly

The spinal curvature that develops as a child learns to walk shifts the trunk weight over the legs. It is an example of a ________ curve.

A. primary

B. secondary

B. secondary

The occipital condyles articulate with the

A. axis.

B. atlas.

C. dens.

D. vertebra prominens.

E. odontoid process.

B. atlas.

Which cervical vertebra is also known as the vertebra prominens?

A. C1

B. C2

C. C4

D. C5

E. C7

E. C7

Which of these features is found in a lumbar vertebra?

A. Pedicles

B. Vertebral foramen

C. Spinous process

D. Vertebral arch

E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Which features are found only on thoracic vertebrae?

A. Costal facets and demifacets

B. Transverse foramina

C. Spinous processes

D. Vertebral foramina

E. Laminae

A. Costal facets and demifacets

Which feature is unique to the axis?

A. Dens

B. Bifid spinous process

C. Superior articular facet

D. Transverse foramen

E. Vertebral foramen

A. Dens

The inferior termination of the sacral canal is an opening called the

A. anterior sacral foramen.

B. sacral promontory.

C. posterior sacral foramen.

D. sacral hiatus.

D. sacral hiatus.

Each auricular surface of the sacrum is located on a(n)

A. ala.

B. median sacral crest.

C. sacral cornu.

D. apex.

E. spinous process.

A. ala.

The clavicles articulate with the sternum at the _____ notches.

A. clavicular

B. suprasternal

C. mastosternal

D. jugular

E. first costal

A. clavicular

What is the superior portion of the sternum called?

A. Xiphoid process

B. Manubrium

C. Body

D. Gladiolus

E. Coccyx

B. Manubrium

The sternal angle can be used as an anatomical landmark to identify the position of the

A. apex of the heart.

B. jugular vein.

C. second rib.

D. trachea.

E. hyoid bone.

C. second rib.

How many pairs of ribs articulate (directly or indirectly) with the sternum?

A. 7

B. 12

C. 10

D. 5

E. 24

C. 10

How many pairs of ribs are "floating ribs" that do not articulate with the sternum?

A. 5

B. 2

C. 7

D. 12

E. 10

B. 2

Rib 1 articulates with vertebra ______ and the ______.

A. T1; body of the sternum

B. T2; body of the sternum

C. T1; manubrium of the sternum

D. C7; manubrium of the sternum

E. T2; clavicle

C. T1; manubrium of the sternum

Which bone count is not correct for a normal adult human?

A. 14 facial bones

B. 7 pairs of true ribs

C. 7 lumbar vertebrae

D. 6 auditory ossicles

E. 8 cranial bones

C. 7 lumbar vertebrae

The part of a rib that articulates with the demifacets on the bodies of vertebrae is the

A. head.

B. tubercle.

C. shaft.

D. tuberosity.

A. head.

Which bone does not belong to the appendicular skeleton?

A. Femur

B. Sacrum

C. Calcaneus

D. Clavicle

E. Ulna

B. Sacrum

Which statement accurately compares the hand and the foot?

A. The hand and the foot each have 14 phalanges.

B. The hand and the foot each have 15 phalanges.

C. Each hand has 14 phalanges, but each foot has 15 phalanges.

D. Each hand has 15 phalanges, but each foot has 14 phalanges.

A. The hand and the foot each have 14 phalanges.

The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the _____ articulates with the _____.

A. humerus; scapula

B. scapula; clavicle

C. scapula; thoracic cage

D. clavicle; humerus

E. clavicle; sternum

E. clavicle; sternum

Which bones comprise each pectoral girdle?

A. Scapula, clavicle, and sternum

B. Scapula, clavicle, sternum, and humerus

C. Scapula and clavicle

D. Sternum and clavicle

E. Scapula, clavicle, and humerus

C. Scapula and clavicle

What bone(s) does the clavicle articulate with?

A. Scapula only

B. Scapula and sternum

C. Scapula and humerus

D. Humerus and sternum

E. Humerus only

B. Scapula and sternum

The ___________ of the scapula is the point where the medial and lateral borders meet.

A. lateral angle

B. superior angle

C. supraglenoid tubercle

D. infraglenoid tubercle

E. inferior angle

E. inferior angle

The costal tuberosity is a feature of the

A. manubrium of the sternum.

B. clavicle.

C. scapula.

D. xiphoid process.

E. body of the sternum.

B. clavicle.

The bones of the antebrachium are the

A. radius, ulna, and humerus.

B. radius, ulna, humerus, and carpals.

C. radius, ulna, carpals, and metacarpals.

D. radius and ulna.

E. carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges.

D. radius and ulna.

Which bones articulate with the humerus?

A. Scapula, radius, and ulna

B. Scapula and radius

C. Scapula and ulna

D. Clavicle, scapula, ulna, and radius

E. Clavicle and ulna

A. Scapula, radius, and ulna

The head of the humerus articulates with the

A. greater trochanter.

B. trochlear notch.

C. glenoid cavity.

D. greater tubercle.

E. intertubercular sulcus.

C. glenoid cavity.

The bony projections that can be palpated medially and laterally at the wrist are the

A. medial and lateral epicondyles.

B. spinous processes.

C. styloid processes.

D. medial and lateral malleoli.

E. greater and lesser trochanters.

C. styloid processes.

In anatomic position, the radius lies _____ to the ulna.

A. posterior

B. medial

C. superior

D. inferior

E. lateral

E. lateral

Which is not a feature of the ulna?

A. Trochlear notch

B. Ulnar notch

C. Coronoid process

D. Head

E. Styloid process

B. Ulnar notch

The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the _________ of the radius.

A. neck

B. radial tuberosity

C. styloid process

D. head

E. radial notch

B. radial tuberosity

Which is not among the bones in the proximal row of carpals?

A. Triquetrum

B. Lunate

C. Scaphoid

D. Trapezoid

E. Pisiform

D. Trapezoid

A pollex has ______ phalanges.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 14

D. 10

E. 7

A. 2

Which is not a carpal bone?

A. Hamate

B. Trapezium

C. Capitulum

D. Scaphoid

E. Trapezoid

C. Capitulum

At what location do the three bones of the os coxae fuse?

A. Iliac crest

B. Ischial tuberosity

C. Acetabulum

D. Pelvic brim

E. Pubic symphysis

C. Acetabulum

Which is not correct regarding the pelvis?

A. The adult pelvis is composed of 4 bones.

B. The pelvis includes the sacrum.

C. The pelvic girdle protects the viscera of the pelvic cavity.

D. In anatomic position, the pubis is posterior and inferior to
the ischium.

E. There are two sacroiliac articulations.

D. In anatomic position, the pubis is posterior and inferior to
the ischium.

On the os coxae, the ischial ramus is fused to the

A. inferior pubic ramus.

B. superior pubic ramus.

C. ischial spine.

D. ischial body.

E. pubic tubercle.

A. inferior pubic ramus.

The ___________ subdivides the pelvis into the "true pelvis" and the "false pelvis".

A. sacral promontory

B. pelvic brim

C. pelvic inlet

D. pelvic outlet

E. pubic symphysis

B. pelvic brim

Which does not contribute to the pelvic brim?

A. Arcuate line

B. Sacral promontory

C. Pubic crest

D. Gluteal line

E. Pectineal line

D. Gluteal line

Which is not characteristic of a male pelvis?

A. Greater sciatic notch narrow, U-shaped, and deep

B. Coccyx tilted posteriorly

C. Pubic arch less than 90 degrees

D. Obturator foramen oval

E. Superior inlet heart-shaped

B. Coccyx tilted posteriorly

What are you resting your hands on when you rest them on your hips, just below the waist?

A. Iliac crests

B. Superior gluteal lines

C. Ischial spines

D. Ischial tuberosities

E. Arcuate lines

A. Iliac crests

As an adult ages, the symphysial surface of the pubis

A. becomes more flattened, and the bony ridge at its circumference progressively disappears.

B. becomes more flattened, and a bony rim forms at its circumference.

C. becomes more billowed, and the bony ridge at its circumference progressively disappears.

D. becomes more billowed, and a bony rim forms at its circumference.

B. becomes more flattened, and a bony rim forms at its circumference.

Which is not a site for muscle attachment on the femur?

A. Gluteal tuberosity

B. Pectineal line

C. Linea aspera

D. Greater trochanter

E. Lateral condyle

E. Lateral condyle

Which is not correct regarding the femur?

A. The condyles are located at the distal end of the bone.

B. In anatomic position, the femur is angled medially.

C. The head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum.

D. The intercondylar fossa is located on the anterior surface of the bone.

E. The depression in the head of the femur is called the fovea.

D. The intercondylar fossa is located on the anterior surface of the bone.

Which is a sesamoid bone?

A. Femur

B. Patella

C. First metatarsal

D. Clavicle

E. Calcaneus

B. Patella

Which bones articulate with the femur?

A. Os coxae, tibia, patella

B. Os coxae, tibia, fibula

C. Scapula, radius, ulna

D. Os coxae, fibia, tibula

E. Tibia, fibula, patella, os coxae

A. Os coxae, tibia, patella

Which is not correct regarding the patella?

A. The patella is triangular in shape.

B. The patella is located in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle.

C. The posterior aspect of the patella articulates with the femur.

D. The broad superior portion of the patella is called the apex.

E. The patella can be palpated on the anterior surface of the knee.

D. The broad superior portion of the patella is called the apex.