Bio 1 Final Exam (3)

*1. Which of the following is not a kingdom within the domain Eukarya?
A. Plants
B. Animals
C. Fungi
D. Archaea

D

*2. The genetic material of all cellular organisms is
A. Single stranded DNA
B. Double stranded DNA
C. Single stranded RNA
D. Double stranded RNA

B

*3. Which of the following statements about evolution is true?
A. Evolution always occurs slowly and gradually
B. An organism can evolve over its lifetime
C. Evolution is a theory about the origin of life
D. Evolution is a non-random process

D

4. A suggested explanation that might be true and is subject to testing by further observations is a(n):
A. hypothesis.
B. experiment.
C. scientific principle.
D. theory.

A

5. The term that Darwin used to describe the concept that those with superior physical, behavior or other attributes are more likely to survive than those that are not so well endowed, and thus are more likely to pass their traits to the next generation, is called:
A. geometric progression
B. natural selection
C. survival of modifications
D. biological diversity

B

6. You have been assigned to analyze some extraterrestrial material recently collected from Mars. After examining a sample using a microscope you jump up excitedly and shout to your colleagues that you have confirmed the existence of life on Mars. One of your colleagues takes a look at your sample and remarks that all she sees is a single-celled "blob" with little internal structure. Assuming that life on Mars can be classified into similar domains and kingdoms as Earth, to which domain does your "blob" belong?
A. Archaea
B. Fungi
C. Protista
D. Animalia

A

*7. Which element would be most likely to form four covalent bonds?
A. N
B. O
C. C
D. H

C

*8. When describing an element, which of the following is not correct?
A. The electrons are in a cloud-like formation around the nucleus
B. The number of protons is equal to the atomic number
C. The atomic weight is the number of protons and electrons added together
D. Isotope contain different numbers of neutrons in the nucleus

C

*9. Which of the following is not true about chemical reactions?
A. Chemical bonds can be broken or formed
B. Atoms can be shifted from one molecule to another
C. The number of atoms changes
D. Energy is always released

C D

*10. Which of the following is not true about covalent bonds?
A. The octet rule is satisfied
B. Involves interactions between cations and anions
C. Paired electrons are involved
D. Electrons are shared between atoms

B

*11. One emergent property of water is high heat of vaporization, which is caused by
A. Water molecules in an ice crystal being spaced far apart due to hydrogen bonding
B. Heat being released when hydrogen bonds are formed
C. The many hydrogen bonds that must be broken to change liquid water to a gas
D. The hydrogen bonds that hold the H and O atoms together in a single water molecule

C

12. Sugars dissolve well in water because of water's ______.
A. polarity
B. ionic bonds
C. hydrophobic exclusion
D. cohesiveness

A

13. Atomic nuclei contain protons and _______.
A. moles
B. neutrons
C. isomers
D. ions

B

14. When atoms gain or lose electrons, they become negatively or positively charged. These negatively or positively charged atoms are known as
A. isotopes.
B. ions.
C. isomers.
D. unstable atoms.

B

*15. What type of reaction is involved in forming polymers from monomers?
A. Hydrolysis
B. Dehydration
C. Glycosidic
D. Ionic

B

16. The pH of your small intestines is around 7.5 and the pH of your large intestine can be 5.5. As substances travel from the small intestines to the large intestine, what would happen to the H ion concentration?
A. It decreases 100 fold.
B. It increases by 100 fold.
C. It increases 10 fold.
D. It decreases 10 fold.

B

17. Two oxygen atoms joined to each other by the sharing of two pairs of electrons form a(n):
A. double covalent bond.
B. single bond.
C. hydrogen bond.
D. ionic bond.

A

18. A scientist conducts a procedure that causes nitrogen atoms to gain neutrons. The resulting atoms will be:
A. ions of nitrogen.
B. positively charged.
C. negatively charged.
D. isotopes of nitrogen.

D

*19. Which of the following is not a lipid?
A. Triglyceride
B. Chitin
C. Cholesterol
D. Steroid hormone

B

*20. Phospholipids contain
A. Three fatty acids and glycerol
B. Phosphate group, nitrogenous base, and a 5-carbon sugar
C. Two fatty acids, glycerol, and a phosphate group
D. Two fatty acids and a phosphate group

C

*21. Guanine would be placed into the group of
A. Purines, because of its single-ringed nitrogenous base
B. Purines, because of its double-ringed nitrogenous base
C. Pyrimidines, because of its single-ringed nitrogenous base
D. Pyrimidines, because of its double-ringed nitrogenous base

B

*22. Complementary strands of DNA are held together by ____ bonds between _____
A. Phosphate, pentose sugars
B. Hydrogen, phosphate groups
C. Hydrogen, nitrogenous bases
D. Diester, nitrogenous bases

C

*23. Which of the following is not a disaccharide?
A. Sucrose
B. Lactose
C. Maltose
D. Fructose

D

*24. Which bond is used to hold together the backbone of a single DNA strand?
A. Hydrogen
B. Peptide
C. Phosphodiester
D. Glycosidic

C

*25. How does a cell store genetic information?
A. Within the sequence of nucleotides in DNA
B. Within RNA, which is then copied to DNA
C. Within the hydrogen bonds of DNA
D. Within the proteins found in the chromatin in the cell nucleus

A

*26. Which of the following is not a characteristic of RNA?
A. Can carry information from DNA
B. Found in ribosomes
C. Contains thymine
D. Contains pentose sugars

C

*27. Which level of protein structure can be determined by ionic, covalent, hydrogen bonds, and hydrophobic interactions between R groups?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

C D

*28. All of the following can cause denaturation, except
A. Changes in pH
B. Increases in temperature
C. Changes in ion concentration
D. Addition of hydrogen bonds

D

29. A DNA molecule containing 32% thymine would contain how much cytosine?
A. 18%
B. 32%
C. 36%
D. 64%

A

30. The biological macromolecule that is least soluble in water is a(n):
A. lipid.
B. nucleic acid.
C. protein.
D. carbohydrate.

A

31. Common lipids for energy storage are:
A. steroids.
B. phospholipids.
C. cholesterols.
D. triglycerides.

D

32. The nitrogenous base that is only found in RNA and not DNA is:
A. adenine
B. cytosine
C. uracil
D. guanine
E. thymine

C

*33. How do cells most effectively increase their surface are to volume ratio?
A. Increase the size of the cell
B. Produce a larger cell membrane
C. Join together with other cells, using cell junctions
D. Change their shape to become less spherical

D

*34. Which of the following is true?
A. Only prokaryotes have ribosomes
B. Eukaryotes are typically smaller and simpler in structure than prokaryotes
C. Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have cytoplasm enclosed by a phospholipid bilayer
D. The hallmark of prokaryotic cells is increased compartmentalization

C

*35. Not all eukaryotes contain
A. A nucleus
B. Organelles
C. Flagella
D. An endomembrane system

C

*36. Ribosomes are composed of
A. DNA and proteins
B. rRNA and proteins
C. mRNA and tRNA
D. lipds and carbohydrates

B

*37. Which of the following organelles contains its own DNA?
A. Ribosomes
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. Chloroplasts

D

*38. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
A. Spatially organizes the cell's protein synthesis activities
B. Sends proteins to their final destination into and outside the cell
C. Synthesizes lipids and stores Ca2
D. Contains digestive enzymes used to degrade worn out organelles

C

39. In eukaryotes, mitochondria are the organelles primarily involved in:
A. export of enzymes.
B. lipid synthesis.
C. phospholipid assembly.
D. energy transformations

D

40. The nucleolus is the site of:
A. protein synthesis.
B. uncoiling and unraveling of chromosomes.
C. ribosome assembly.
D. chromosome replication.

C

41. Which of the following structures is involved with the movement of organelles within a cell?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Microtubules
D. Intermediate filaments

C

42. How are the tails and heads of membrane phospholipids oriented in their environment?
A. The hydrophobic heads are oriented towards each other and the hydrophillic tails are oriented towards the extracellular fluid and the intracellular fluid.
B. The hydrophillic tails are oriented towards each other and the hydrophobic heads are oriented towards the extracellular fluid and the intracellular fluid.
C. The hydrophobic tails are oriented towards each other and the hydrophillic heads are oriented towards the extracellular fluid and the intracellular fluid.
D. The hydrophillic heads are oriented towards each other and the hydrophobic tails are oriented towards the extracellular fluid and the intracellular fluid.

C

43. The part of a membrane protein that extends through the phospholipid bilayer is primarily composed of amino acids that are
A. highly polar. B. negatively charged.
C. non-polar. D. water soluble.

C

44. The movement of substances to regions of lower concentration is called
A. active transport. B. diffusion.
C. pinocytosis. D. exocytosis.

B

45. If you were to replace the phosphate group of a phospholipid with a fatty acid chain, you would have
A. glycerol. B. a triglyceride.
C. cholesterol. D. glycolipid.

B

46. In bacteria, fungi, and plants the high internal pressure generated by osmosis is counteracted by the mechanical strength of their
A. plasma membranes. B. organelles.
C. cytoskeletons. D. cell walls.

D

47. The amount of energy available to do work is called
A. activation energy B. free energy
C. kinetic energy D. potential energy

B

48. Facilitated diffusion is an important method for cells in obtaining necessary molecules and removing other ones. Requirements for facilitated diffusion include
A. The carrier molecule must be specific to the molecule that is transported. The direction of movement is always with the concentration gradient, never against the gradient.
B. The carrier molecule is nonspecific to the molecule that is transported. The direction of movement is always with the concentration gradient, never against the gradient.
C. The carrier molecule is nonspecific to the molecule that is transported. The direction of movement is always against the concentration gradient, never with the gradient.
D. The carrier molecule must be specific to the molecule that is transported and an ATP molecule must be attached to the specific carrier. The direction of movement is always against the concentration gradient, never with the gradient.

A

49. Matt is studying how the protein transferrin enters cells. He examines cells that have taken up transferrin, and finds clathrin-coated vesicles. What mechanism was used to take transferrin into the cell?
A. Phagocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Exocytosis
D. Receptor-mediator endocytosis

D

50. The energy needed to destabilize existing chemical bonds and start a chemical reaction is called
A. activation energy B. free energy
C. kinetic energy D. potential energy

A

51. A molecule that closely resembles the shape of a substrate for an enzyme would most likely serve as a
A. noncompetitive inhibitor. B. allosteric inhibitor.
C. competitive inhibitor. D. allosteric activator.

C

52. The synthesis of sugar molecules through the process of photosynthesis requires energy absorbed from sunlight. Bearing this in mind, what kind of reaction is photosynthesis?
A. exergonic B. endergonic
C. catabolic D. feedback

B

53. Hexokinase is an enzyme that binds specifically to glucose and converts it into glucose 6-phosphate. The activity of hexokinase is suppressed by glucose 6-phosphate, which binds to hexokinase at a location that is distinct from the active site. This is an example of.
A. feedback inhibition. B. competitive inhibition.
C. cofactor binding. D. allosteric activation.

A

54. When an atom or molecule gains one or more electrons, it is said to be:
A. energized. B. oxidized.
C. polarized. D. reduced.

D

55. Glucose is broken down through cellular respiration, which involves a large number of chemical reactions. At the end of the cellular respiration process, a large number of ATP molecules are generated, but yet, not all of the possible energy that is contained in a molecule of glucose can be harnessed through these chemical reactions to generate ATP. In other words, during cellular respiration, not all of the energy that is contained in a molecule of glucose is converted into the energy stored in ATP. What happens to the remaining energy?
A. It is destroyed
B. It is used to drive exergonic reactions
C. It is donated to molecules in the cellular respiration process to reduce them
D. It is lost as heat

D

56. When the substrate is bound to the enzyme, the shape of the enzyme may change slightly, leading to
A. an induced fit
B. a great range of possible catalytic activities
C. a greater supply of activation energy
D. more permanent binding through intimate total contact

A

57. Organisms that can manufacture their own forms of chemical energy are called ____________.
A. autotrophs B. heterotrophs
C. oligotrophs D. chemotrophs

A

58. In glycolysis, a major portion of the energy remains in the final product, which is called
A. glucose.
B. citrate.
C. NAD
D. pyruvate.

D

59. When oxygen is unavailable during heavy exercise what process do muscle cells use for energy generation?
A. Glycolysis coupled with alcohol fermentation
B. Anaerobic respiration
C. Aerobic respiration
D. Glycolysis coupled with lactate fermentation

D

60. In aerobic respiration, chemiosmotic generation of ATP is driven by:
A. Pi transfer through the plasma membrane.
B. the Na/K+ pump.
C. a difference in H+ concentration on the two sides of the inner mitochondrial membrane.
D. large quantities of ADP.

C

61. The equation for cellular respiration is: C6H12O6+6O2 =6CO2 + 6H2O. At what specific point in the cellular respiration process has glucose been broken down completely from a six carbon molecule to 6 molecules of CO2?
A. During the priming reactions in glycolysis
B. During the oxidation and ATP formation reactions in glycolysis
C. During pyruvate oxidation
D. During the second oxidation in the Krebs cycle

D

62. What are the products of one turn of the Krebs cycle?
A. 2 CO2, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP
B. 2 CO2, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP
C. 4 CO2, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP
D. 4 CO2, 12 NADH, 4 FADH2, 4 ATP

A

63. Pyruvate oxidation in eukaryotic cells occurs in the ________.
A. cytoplasm B. nucleus
C. Golgi body D. mitochondria

D

64. As electrons move along the electron transport chain, they lose potential energy. How is the energy that is released used by the cell?
A. The energy is used to transport protons against their concentration gradient
B. The energy is used to pump electrons along the electron transport chain
C. The energy is converted directly into ATP
D. The energy is used to pump NAD into the cytoplasm so it can be used in glycolysis

A

65. Regardless of the electron or hydrogen acceptor used, one of the products of fermentation is always
A. ATP. B. NAD+
C. pyruvate. D. alcohol.

.
B

66. Glucose is not our only food source, nor the only one we can utilize in our bodies to generate energy. Other primary sources of energy include other sugars, proteins, and fats.What metabolic intermediate are fats primarily converted into?
A. Pyruvate
B. Acetyl-CoA
C. Krebs cycle intermediates
D. Electron transport chain components

B

67. What is the oxidized form of the most common electron carrier that is needed for both glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?
A. ATP B. FAD
C. pyruvate D. NAD

D

68. Where do the carbon atoms in glucose come from?
A. Sunlight B. Carbon dioxide
C. Water D. NADPH

B

69. The splitting of water and the generation of oxygen occur where?
A. Photosystem I B. The Krebs Cycle
C. The Calvin Cycle D. Photosystem II

D

70. Why is the energy generated from the catabolism of sugars and other macromolecules ultimately harnessed to generate ATP?
A. ATP can be used by cells to drive endergonic reactions
B. ATP can be used to make RNA, which is an energy storage molecule in the cell
C. ATP synthesis is an exergonic reaction
D. ATP is required to generate the proton gradient in the intermembrane space of mitochondria

A

71. When substrate-level phosphorylation occurs, it means that:
A. NAD+ is converted into NADH.
B. ATP is converted into ADP plus a phosphate group.
C. ADP is converted into ATP by the addition of a phosphate group.
D. NADH is converted into NAD+ plus a proton.

C

72. In eukaryotes, photosynthesis takes place inside the ________.
A. chloroplasts B. mitochondria
C. cytoplasm D. Golgi apparatus

A

73. Which plants utilize a specialized carbon fixation enzyme and a unique cell structure to reduce the problems of photorespiration?
A. C3 B. C4
C. Desert D. Arctic

B

74. A plant is treated with a chemical that blocks the flow of electrons between photosystem II and photosystem I, such that protons are not transported from the stroma into the thylakoid compartment. What is the effect of this chemical on photosynthesis?
A. the increased number of protons will be directly used in the thylakoid to produce glucose
B. an increased proton gradient will provide the energy needed to produce ATP from the light reactions
C. a decreased proton gradient will cause less ATP to be produced from the light reactions
D. the increased proton gradient will be used to make NADPH for the Calvin cycle

C

75. In photosynthesis, carbon fixation occurs:
A. in photosystem I B. in photosystem II
C. in the Calvin cycle D. during photorespiration

C

76. For photosynthesis in green plants, the electron donor for the light dependent reaction is
A. carbon dioxide. B. oxygen.
C. RuBP. D. water.

D

77. In green plants, which photosystem absorbs photons to excite electrons in the reaction center?
A. Photosystem I B. Photosystem II
C. Photosystem III D. Photosystem I and II

D

78. The light-independent reactions of photosynthesis are those that
A. convert glucose into energy.
B. convert water into hydrogen and oxygen.
C. convert CO2 into reduced molecules (sugars).
D. occur only at night.

C

79. In the light-independent reactions, when CO2 is added to a molecule of Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP) the product is
A. citric acid.
B. glucose.
C. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
D. 3-phosphoglycerate.
E. pyruvate.

D

80. The photosynthetic electron transport causes the accumulation of protons in which part of the chloroplast?
A. matrix
B. outer membrane
C. stroma
D. internal thylakoid space

D

81. What products of light reactions of photosynthesis are used in the Calvin cycle?
A. oxygen and protons
B. carbon dioxide and water
C. ATP and NADPH
D. ADP and NADP

C

82. Ribosomes are made up of:
A. only RNA molecules.
B. only DNA molecules.
C. protein and RNA.
D. only protein molecules.

C

83. The organelle that can collect, package, modify, and transport molecules is called the:
A. plasma membrane.
B. Golgi apparatus.
C. mitochondria.
D. vesicle.

B

84. Lipids are the only class of macromolecules that contain:
A. amino acids.
B. fatty acids.
D. phosphate groups.
E. monosaccharides.

B

85. A DNA molecule containing 14% guanine would contain how much thymine?
A. 14%
B. 26%
C. 28%
D. 36%

D

86. Atoms of a single element that possess different numbers of neutrons are called:
A. isomers.
B. polymers.
C. ions.
D. isotopes.

D

87. In bacterial cell division, the cell divides into two nearly equal halves. This process is referred to as:
A. binary fission B. mitosis
C. meiosis D. cytokinesis

A

88. A scientist wants to study histones. Histones are:
A. proteins that double-stranded DNA molecules wrap around in eukaryotes.
B. proteins that regulate checkpoints in the mitotic cell cycle.
C. proteins that serve as the spindle fiber to pull sister chromatids apart during anaphase.
D. proteins that required for the activity of Cdk enzymes.

A

89. Before cell division of somatic cells, each chromosome must be replicated. After replication, the resulting two parts of each chromosome are held together by cohesin at the centromere. These two parts are referred to as:
A. Homologous chromosomes B. Sister chromatids
C. Daughter chromosomes D. Kinetochores

B

90. If there are 32 sister chromatids in a normal somatic cell, how many chromosomes are there?
A. 8 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64

B

91. What is the sequence of events in a typical eukaryotic cell cycle?
A. G1 to G2 to S to mitosis to cytokinesis
B. G1 to S to G2 to mitosis to cytokinesis
C. G1 to S to G2 to cytokinesis to mitosis
D. G1 to G2 to mitosis to S to cytokinesis

B

92. What is the portion of the cell cycle during which the chromosomes are invisible under the light microscope because they are not yet condensed?
A. Interphase B. Prophase
C. Anaphase D. Telophase

A

93. This stage of mitosis is characterized by the disassembly of spindle apparatus, the reestablishment of the nuclear membrane, and the decondensation of the chromosomes:
A. Prometaphase B. Telophase
C. Anaphase D. Metaphase

B

94. The progress of the eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated primarily by what proteins?
A. Cyclins B. Histone proteins
C. Condensins D. FtsZ

A

95. If a chromosome contains a mutation such that it cannot bind to the kinetochore complex, what would be the consequence?
A. That chromosome would not be able to be replicated.
B. That chromosome would not be able to condense.
C. That chromosome would not be able to bind to the mitotic spindle.
D. That chromosome would not be able to interact with histone proteins.

C

96. In life cycles that alternate between haploid and diploid stages, fertilization doubles the number of chromosomes per cell while ______ reduces it in half.
A. mitosis B. meiosis
C. binary fission D. syngamy

B

97. Diploid organisms use meiosis to produce haploid cells. Meiosis consists of how many rounds of nuclear division?
A. one B. two C. three D. four

B

98. All animal cells are diploid except
A. gametes. B. muscle cells.
C. nerve cells. D. somatic cells.

A

99. Which of the following events occurs first during meiosis?
A. homologous chromosomes separate and are pulled to opposite poles of the cell
B. sister chromatids separate and are pulled to opposite poles of the cell
C. synapsis of homologous chromosomes
D. pairs of homologous chromosomes align along the equatorial plate

C

100. At the end of meiosis II, each of the four resulting cells contains
A. one full set of chromosomes, each with 2 molecules of DNA.
B. two full sets of chromosomes, each with 2 molecules of DNA.
C. one full set of chromosomes, each with 1 molecule of DNA.
D. two full sets of chromosomes, each with 1 molecule of DNA.

C