NURS 210: Module 7 & 8 PowerPoint Notes

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(also includes lab PowerPoint notes)

115 Terms

1

what is the term for itchiness?

pruritus

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2

ABCDEF stands for?

If any lesions are present, note the following:

Asymmetry

Border irregularity

Color variations

Diameter greater than 6 mm

Elevation or evolution

Funny looking; different from others

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3

what is the term for hives?

urticaria

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4

what is the term for hair loss?

alopecia

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5

the mediastinum is?

the middle section of thoracic cavity containing esophagus, trachea, heart, and great vessels

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6

the right and left plueral cavities contain what?

Lungs

(make sure to note lung borders at apex, base, lateral and posterior positions)

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7

the parietal pleura lines what?

chest cavity

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8

the visceral pleura encloses what?

the lung

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9

pleural cavity has __________ pressure

negative

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10

Trachea and bronchi transport what?

gas

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11

bronchial tree has what?

alveoli

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12

First seven ribs attach to what?

sternum (by costal cartilages)

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13

Ribs 8, 9, and 10 attach to what?

costal cartilage above

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14

Ribs 11 and 12 are what?

floating (with free palpable tips)

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15

Costochondral junctions are what?

points at which ribs join their cartilages (they are not palpable)

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16

Suprasternal notch:

U shaped depression just above sternum between clavicles

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17

How do you find vertebra prominens?

Flex your head and feel for most prominent bony spur protruding at base of neck

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18

How do you find spinous processes?

Count down knobs on vertebrae, which stack together to form spinal column

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19

Scapulae are located symmetrically in each ____________

hemothorax

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20

How do you find the twelfth rib?

Palpate midway between spine and a person’s side to identify its free tip

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21

When you lift up a person’s arm 90 degrees, you divide the lateral chest by what three lines?

Anterior axillary, midaxillary, and posterior axillary

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22

The right lung is shorter than the left because of what?

underlying liver

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23

The left lung is narrower than the right because of what?

the heart bulges to left

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24

How many lobes does the right lung have?

3

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25

How many lobes does the left lung have?

2

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26

Asthma key facts:

~most common chronic disease in childhood

~highest burden seen in those living at or below the federal poverty level

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27

Common concern questions to ask related to the lungs:

Have you noticed any shortness of breath or fatigue with your daily activities?

Tell me about your usual amount of physical activity.

How is your energy level? Do you tire more easily? How does your illness affect you at home and at work?

Do you have any chest pain with breathing?

Do you have any chest pain after a bout of coughing or after a fall?

Does the sputum have an odor? How much are you producing? What color is it?

Any exposure to chemicals, vapors, asbestos, or allergens?

Any occupational or recreational concerns?

Do you smoke tobacco?

Are you exposed to secondhand smoke?

Have you recently traveled out of the country?

Do you use any other drugs or alcohol?

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28

Anteroposterior (AP) diameter is ______ than transverse diameter

less

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29

You check the _____ and ______ of respiration

Rate, depth

(you also look for accessory muscle use and retraction)

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30

Where do you look for pallor (paleness) and cyanosis?

in the skin, lips, nail beds, extremities

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31

Increased fremitus =

consolidation

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32

When would you have a patient repeat the phrase “ninety-nine?”

when assessing for tactile (vocal) fremitus

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33

We percuss in ___________ ________, not on bone

intercostal spaces

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34

Resonance is what?

a low-pitched, clear, hollow sound

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35

When auscultating a patients lungs you?

~instruct client to breathe through mouth

~start at apices, move to bases

~one full respiration at each location

~compare bilaterally

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36

Vesicular:

heard over lung fields except upper sternum and between scapulae, quiet and low pitched, “breezy”

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37

Bronchial:

heard over trachea, louder and higher pitched, hollow, tubular

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38

Bronchovesicular:

heard over main bronchi, medium pitch, “breezy and tubular”

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39

When auscultating a females chest you?

Displace the breast and listen directly over the chest wall

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40

Fine Crackles (Rales)

Usually inspiratory, discontinuous, moist sounding

High-pitched, crackling, popping sounds

(pneumonia, heart failure, COPD, bronchitis)

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41

Coarse Crackles

Loud, low-pitched, bubbling, gurgling

(pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis)

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42

Atelectatic

Short, popping, crackling like fine crackles but dissipate after deep breaths

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43

Pleural friction rub

Superficial sound

Coarse, low-pitched, grating quality

(pleuritis)

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44

Sibilant Wheeze

Continuous, musical sounds from air passing through narrowed passage in small airways

High-pitched, squeaking

(asthma, chronic emphysema)

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45

Sonorous Wheeze

Continuous, snoring sound from narrowed large airways

Low-pitched, single note, moaning sound

(bronchitis, obstruction)

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46

Stridor

Continuous, crowing, partial obstruction of trachea

(croup, epiglottitis, foreign body)

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47

Increased tactile fremitus occurs with?

conditions that increase the density of lung tissue, thereby making a better-conducting medium for vibrations (e.g., compression or consolidation [pneumonia])

There must be a patent bronchus, and consolidation must extend to the lung surface for increased fremitus to be apparent

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48

Aging changes with the lungs:

Decreased vital capacity

Less surface area is available for gas exchange

(this increases the older person's risk for dyspnea with exertion beyond his or her usual workload)

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49

When auscultating an older patient, make sure to?

Take care that this person does not hyperventilate and become dizzy.

Allow brief rest periods or quiet breathing.

(if the person does feel faint, holding the breath for a few seconds restores equilibrium)

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50

What is nutrition?

Balance between nutrient intake and nutrient requirement

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51

Optimal nutritional status is achieved when?

sufficient nutrients are consumed to support day-to-day body needs and any increased metabolic demands due to growth, pregnancy, or illness

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52

Under nutritional status occurs when?

nutritional reserves are depleted or when nutrient intake is inadequate to meet day-to-day needs or added metabolic demands

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53

Over nutritional status is caused by?

consumption of nutrients, especially calories, sodium, and fat, in excess of body needs

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54

During adulthood, growth and nutrient needs ___________

stabilize

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55

What lifestyle factors can lead to the development of disease?

cigarette smoking, stress, lack of exercise, excessive alcohol intake, and diets high in saturated fat, cholesterol, salt, and sugar and low in fiber

(adult years, therefore, are an important time for education to preserve health and to prevent or delay the onset of chronic disease)

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56

Adult emergence of Metabolic syndrome is a concern that can lead to?

increased cardiac risk

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57

Being overweight during childhood and adolescence is associated with ___________ risk for becoming overweight during adulthood

increased

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58

Common concern questions to ask relating to nutrition:

What are your eating patterns?

What is your usual weight? Have you had recent weight change? What was the reason for the loss or gain?

Any changes in appetite, taste, smell, chewing, or swallowing?

Are you able to feed yourself? Are you able to go to the store?

Any recent vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation?

Any food allergies or intolerances?

What are your exercise patterns?

Number of meals/snacks per day?

Kind and amount of food eaten?

Fad, special, or alternative diets?

Where is food eaten?

Food preferences and dislikes?

Religious or cultural restrictions?

Able to feed self?

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59

When assessing nutritional status, you should include?

weight (BMI) and weight history, conditions associated with increased nutritional risk, diet information, and routine laboratory data.

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60

Nutrition screening tools:

Admission Nutrition Screening Tool (validated for use by nurses in hospital settings)

Nutrition Screening Initiative form (designed and validated in outpatient, geriatric population)

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61

Individuals identified at nutritional risk during screening should undergo a comprehensive nutritional assessment, which includes the following:

~dietary history and clinical information

~physical examination for clinical signs and anthropometric measures

~laboratory tests

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62

Obese, cachectic (fat and muscle wasting), or edematous (malnutrition caused by a lack of protein in the diet), can provide clues to?

overall nutritional status

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63

Where would you observe for late manifestations of malnutrition?

in the skin, hair, mouth, lips, and eyes

(areas of rapid turnover of epithelial tissue)

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64

Laboratory testing is ___________ to make clinical diagnosis.

necessary

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65

Skin is the bodies ________ organ system

largest

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66

Epidermis:

outer highly differentiated layer

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67

Dermis:

inner supportive layer, connective tissue or collagen, elastic tissue

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68

Beneath the epidermis and dermis layers there is a subcutaneous layer of what?

adipose tissue

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69

The subcutaneous layer of adipose tissue does what?

Stores fat for energy, provides insulation for temperature control and aids in protection

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70

Skin color is derived from:

Melanin – brown

Carotene – yellow

Vascular bed – red/purple

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71

Increased melanin ___________ risk for skin cancer

decreases

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72

Skin key facts:

Protection from environment

Prevents penetration

Perception

Temperature regulation

Identification

Communication

Wound repair

Absorption and excretion

Production of vitamin D

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73

Sebaceous glands

Sebum (secreted lipid substance through hair follicles)

Lubricate skin and form emulsion

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74

Sweat glands are important for what?

fluid balance and thermoregulation

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75

Eccrine glands are found where?

all over the surface of the body

(most numerous on the palms of hands and soles of feet)

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76

Eccrine glands produce what?

sweat

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77

Apocrine glands produce what?

milky secretion into hair follicles

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78

Apocrine glands are most commonly found where?

in the armpits and groin area

(sweat from these glands does not evaporate as quickly and can lead to a foul body odor)

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79

Hard plates of keratin are found where?

on dorsal edges of fingers and toes

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80

Common concern questions to ask relating to the skin, hair, and nails:

Past history of skin disease, allergies, hives, psoriasis, or eczema?

Change in pigmentation?

Change in mole (size or color)?

Excessive dryness or moisture?

Pruritus?

Excessive bruising?

Rash or lesions?

Medications?

Hair loss?

Change in nails?

Environmental or occupational hazards?

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81

Skin assessment is integrated throughout what?

physical examination

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82

Scrutinize the _____ skin surface first before you concentrate on underlying structures

outer

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83

Where do you have to separate intertriginous areas (areas with skinfolds)?

under large breasts, obese abdomen, and groin

(inspect them thoroughly)

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84

When assessing the skin, hair, and nails, make sure to always inspect:

feet, toenails, and between toes

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85

Assess skin as ____ entity

one

(getting overall impression helps reveal distribution patterns)

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86

What to look for when assessing skin color:

General pigmentation, freckles, moles, birthmarks

Widespread color change

Note color change over entire body skin, such as pallor (pale), erythema (red), cyanosis (blue), or jaundice (yellow).

Note if color change is transient or due to pathology.

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87

What to look for when assessing skin temperature:

Skin should be warm, and temperature equal bilaterally; warmth suggests normal circulatory status.

Hands and feet may be slightly cooler in a cool environment.

Hypothermia or Hyperthermia

(make sure to palpate with the back of your hand!)

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88

When assessing for skin moisture, note if there is?

Diaphoresis or Dehydration

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89

Normal skin feels _______ and ______ with even surface

smooth, firm

(observe for thickened areas [callus formation])

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90

Other things to look for when assessing the skin:

Edema

Fluid accumulation in the interstitial space

Mobility and turgor

Assess skin elasticity

Vascularity or bruising

Presence of tattoos and/or variations

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91

Tanner staging identifies what?

gender patterns of hair distribution

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92

Hair color is due to what?

melanin production

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93

Hair texture characteristics range from?

fine to thick to curly to straight and may be affected by use of hair care products

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94

How to identify lesions in hair:

by looking at scalp and dividing hair into sections

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95

Angle of nail base should be what?

about 160 degrees

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96

Nail thickness should be?

uniform smooth and regular (not brittle or splitting)

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97

Nail color should be?

translucent nail plate to pink nail bed below

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98

How to test capillary refill:

Depress nail edge to blanch and then release, noting return of color (indicates status of peripheral circulation)

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99

Pressure injury staging:

Stage I: Non-blanchable erythema

Stage II: Partial-thickness skin loss

Stage III: Full-thickness skin loss

Stage IV: Full-thickness skin/tissue loss

Deep tissue pressure injury (DTPI)

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100

Senile purpura:

typically affects older patients as their dermal tissues atrophy and blood vessels become more fragile

(the recurrent formation of purple ecchymoses (bruises) on the extensor surfaces of forearms following minor trauma)

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