Private Pilot Stage 1 Check

What does the acronym IMSAFE stand for?

I-Illness

M-Medication

S-Stress

A-Alcohol

F-Fatigue

E-Emotion

What does the acronym AV1ATE stand for ?

A-Annual Inspection (once a year. general check)

V-VOR (every 30 days for IFR. Can be done by pilot)

1-100 Hours (if operated for hire)

A-Altimeter/Static Air System (every 24 mo. IFR)

T-Transponder (every 24 months)

E-ELT (every 12 mo., 1/2 listed battery time, or 1hr use)

What does the acronym ARROW stand for?

A-Airworthiness Certificate

R-Registration Certificate

R-Radio Station License (intl flights)

O-Operating Limitations

W-Weight and Balance

What does the acronym ATOMATOFLAMES stand for?

Required equipment for Day VFR

A-Airspeed Indicator

T-Tachometer (for each engine)

O-Oil pressure system

M-Manifold Pressure Gauge

A-Alitmeter

T-Temperature Gauge (liquid cooled engine)

O-Oil Temperature Gauge

F-Fuel Gauge

L-Landing Gear Position

A-Anti-collision lights

M-Magnetic Compass

E-ELT

S-Safety Belt

What does the acronym FLAPS stand for?

Required equipment for Night VFR

F-Fuses (one complete spare set)

L-Landing light (only if flying for hire)

A-Anti-collision lights

P-Position Lights

S-Source of Electricity (alternator/generator)

What documents must be in a pilot's possession or readily available in the aircraft for every flight?

an appropriate pilot certificate, a government issued ID, and a current medical certificate

What is the standard VFR Squawk Code?

1200

What is an A/FD? How long is it effective for?

Airport/Facility Directory (now known as chart supplement). Updated every 56 days.

What is a sectional chart and how long is it effective for?

A type of aeronautical chart designed for navigation under VFR. They are updated every 6 months, but probably old after 8 weeks.

What is an MEL?

Minimum equipment list. A list which states which equipment must be operational in order for a flight to proceed.

Label each of the antennae on the Cessna 172N

Comm Antennas at the top

List and describe the private pilot special emphasis areas

1. Positive Aircraft Control- demonstrating that you are flying the airplane and not letting it fly you.

2. Procedures for positive exchange of flight controls (your flight controls)

3. Stall and Spin Awareness (low airspeed, a lot of drag from full flaps, and possible uncoordination on base to final) (Demonstrating knowledge of the conditions that lead to stalls and spin, as well the proper recovery procedure.)

4. Collision Avoidance (clearing turns, visual scans before entering runway, raising wings before turns, call outs "clear left"

5. Wake turbulence avoidance (understand the risk of WT, procedures to use when departing or arriving behind heavier aircraft, crossing behind heavier aircraft)

6. LAHSO (an acronym for "Land and Hold Short Operations." Land and hold short operations are an air traffic control procedure intended to increase airport capacity without compromising safety)

7. Runway Incursion Avoidance (any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and takeoff of aircraft. i.e. t/o or landing without clearance, operational incidents like clearing an aircraft while another aircraft is in the way, or vehicles crossing runways. USE SITUATIONAL AWARENESS)

8. Controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) (an accident in which an aircraft, under pilot control, is unintentionally flown into the ground, a mountain, a body of water or an obstacle. If you see a cloud, make a 180 degree turn bc you do not know what is behind it.)

9. ADM and risk management (aeronautical decision making is a systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances. risk management deals with situational awareness, recognizing problems, and good-judgement calls to reduce risks)

10. Checklist usage

What is CFR 14?

rules and regulations for aeronautics and space. issued by DOT and FAA. Each part deals with a specific type of activity.

What are FARs?

Federal Aviation Regulations; rules that govern all aviation activities in the US.

What does Part 1 of the FARs discuss?

Definitions and Abbreviations

What does Part 61 of the FARs discuss?

Certifications of pilots, flight instructors, and ground instructors

What does Part 91 of the FARs discuss?

General operating and Flight rules

What does 49 CFR Part 830 discuss?

Notification and reporting of aircraft accidents or incidents and overdue aircraft

Preservation of aircraft wreckage, mail, cargo, and records.

What are the daytime, dual, fuel requirements established by the FAA?

You need enough fuel to fly to your first landing point and then still have 30 minutes of fuel remaining at a normal cruise speed

What are the fuel requirements for daytime, solo flights established by faithful guardian?

17 gallons per tank and 45 minutes of fuel upon landing

Describe class D airspace

Surface up to 2,500 ft MSL surrounding airports with operational control tower. When tower not active, becomes Class E airspace down to 700 ft, below which is Class G.

3 statute miles of flight visibility required

1000 ft above, 500 ft below, 2000 ft horizontal

Two-way radio comm. prior to entry

Describe class E airspace

Class E airspace is the controlled airspace not classified as Class A, B, C, or D airspace. In areas where charts do not depict a class E base, class E begins at 14,500 feet MSL. In most areas, the Class E airspace base is 1,200 feet AGL. In many other areas, the Class E airspace base is either the surface or 700 feet AGL. Typically extends to 17,999 feet MSL.

Weather min. @ or above 10k ft: 5SM Visibility, 1000ft above, 1000ft below, 1SM Horizontally

Weather min. @ or below 10k ft: 3sm visibility, 1000ft above, 500ft below, 2000ft horizontally

No equipment required

Describe class G airspace

Uncontrolled airspace that extends from the surface to the base of the overlying Class E airspace.

1200ft or less: clear of clouds, 1sm visibility

Night time: 3sm visibility, 1000ft above, 500ft below, 2000 horizontally

1200ft-9,999ft: 1sm visibility

Describe the electrical system for a Cessna 172N

28 volt DC electrical system and a 24 volt lead- acid battery. Electrical energy is supplied by a 60 amp alternator located on the front of the engine. An external power receptacle is located on the left side

of engine cowl.

Electrical power is distributed through electrical buses and circuit breakers

Describe the engine of a Cessna 172

equipped with a Lycoming, 4 cylinder, normally aspirated, carbureted , 320 cubic inch, horizontally opposed, air cooled, direct driveO-320-H2ADengine.

160 HP @ 2700 RPM

Ignitionis provided by 2 magnetos on the back of engine which provide spark to 8 spark plugs

The engine has an 6 quart oil sump. FGA minimum oil quantity for takeoff is 4 quarts.

What does BHP stand for and what is it?

brake horse power; Brake horsepower is the horsepower of an engine measured by the degree of resistance offered by a brake, that represents the useful power that the machine can develop.

measure of the engine's power without any power losses and measured in a controlled environment without anything attached to the engine

What does the alternator do?

supplies electrical power to all vital equipment on the airplane and recharges the battery

Using the GPS, how do you find the nearest airport?

Rotate the large knob to switch between pages and go to the nearest page. Press NRST button to go directly to the nearest airport

Describe the 4 flight controls

Ailerons control roll about the longitudinal axis

Elevator (stabilator) controls pitch about the lateral axis.

Rudder controls yaw about the vertical axis.

Describe the fuel system in the Cessna 172

standard fuel system 21.5 gals capacity per side

two vented fuel tanks, a four-position selector valve, fuel strainer, manual primer, and carburetor.

Fuel flows by gravity from the two wing tanks to a four-position selector valve, labeled BOTH, RIGHT, LEFT, and OFF. With the selector valve in either the BOTH, LEFT, or RIGHT position, fuel flows through a strainer to the carburetor.

From the carburetor, mixed fuel and air flows to the cylinders through intake manifold tubes. The manual primer draws its fuel from the fuel strainer and injects it into the cylinder intake ports.

Fuel quantity is measured by two float-type fuel quantity transmitters (one in each tank) and indicated by two electrically-operated fuel quantity indicators on the left side of the instrument panel.

The fuel selector valve should be in the BOTH position for takeoff, climb, landing, and maneuvers that involve prolonged slips or skids. Operation from either LEFT or RIGHT tank is reserved for cruising flight.

How many fuel sumps does a Cessna 172 have and where are they located?

3. one on each wing and one at the bottom of the engine.

How does the oil system work? wet or dry sump?

The oil system is used for cooling, lubrication, and cleaning. The oil pump draws oil from the sump and routes it to the engine. After the oil passes through the engine, it returns to the sump. The oil pressure gauge provides a direct indication of the oil system operation

Wet sump oil system

look back at POH girl

How much RPM drop is allowed for each magneto?

Should not exceed 125 RPM and should not have a difference of more than 50 RPM between the two when checked.

What two instruments can be used to determine that the alternator has failed?

Ammeter and low-voltage warning light

What instruments are powered by gyros?

Turn coordinator, heading indicator, and attitude indicator.

heading and attitude indicator are vacuum (or pressure) powered. turn coordinator is powered electrically

Which instruments use the pitot/static system?

The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator

The airspeed indicator is the only instrument that uses both pitot and static

The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator.

Aneroid wafers expand and contract as atmospheric pressure changes.

A higher static pressure presses down on the wafers and causes them to collapse. A lower static pressure (less than 29.92" Hg) allows the wafers to expand.

This static air enters the casing through a tube attached to the static ports

How does the airspeed indicator work?

Compares ram air from pitot tube with static air from static port. It does this by filling up the case of the instrument with static air, and filling something called an "pressure diaphragm" with ram air. As the diaphragm fills up with more ram pressure, it expands, and the airspeed goes up.

It starts with your pitot tube, which measures combination of static and dynamic pressure, otherwise known as "ram air".

Next up is your static port (or ports). Your static ports connect to your airspeed indicator as well, and they constantly measure the static pressure of the air.

How does the vertical speed indicator work?

The vertical speed indicator is a pressure differential instrument. Using two aneroids with calibrated leak, one lagging more that the other causing the pressure difference to show and increase or decrease in altitude.

So here's how it all works. Let's say you start climbing. As you climb, your static pressure decreases, and as it decreases immediately in the diaphragm. But the instrument casing is a different story. Since the calibrated leak lets air out slowly, it creates a higher pressure in the casing than the diaphragm. When that happens, it creates a pressure differential, the diaphragm is squeezed down, and the gears connected to the VSI needle make it move up.

And the greater the pressure differential, the more the needle moves up.

What happens when you descend? The exact opposite.

What does METAR stand for?

Meteorological Aerodrome Report (current weather at an airport)

How often are METARs published? How long are they effective?

Usually refresh around 55 past the hour and only good for an hour.

What does TAF stand for AND what is it?

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast. A format for reporting weather forecast information

Published 6 times a day and cover 24-30 hours

What does FA stand for?

Area Forecast and it is a forecast of Visual Flight Rules (VFR) clouds and weather conditions over an area as large as the size of several states.

They provide an 18-hour synopsis of expected weather patterns; a 12-hour forecast of VFR cloud cover, weather and visibility; and a 6-hour categorical outlook. FAs are prepared 3 times a day.

How does the wind affect the airplane in regards to airspeed and groundspeed?

When a headwind is subtracted or a tailwind is added to the speed of an airplane, this is called the wind component and will affect only the ground speed and not the actual airspeed of the aircraft. In this example, the airspeed will always read 100 mph, but if the aircraft is affected by a tailwind or headwind component, we must add or subtract the wind speed to find the actual progress or ground speed of the aircraft. For instructions on how to calculate this, refer to the page on ground speed.

What are several ways wind direction can be determined from the air?

E6B

GPS

VORs

Foreflight

Do a maneuver and see where your downwind is

what visual things (smoke direction, trees blowing, ripples in a river)

What is the engine failure before Vr checklist?

Maintain aircraft control and land on remaining runway

OR

Within 30 degrees of centerline, avoid obstacles and do not attempt to turn back 180 degrees.

Airspeed should be at 65-70 KIAS

Flaps as required

Power as available

Declare Emergency

Cutoff mixture

FSV OFF

Master Switch OFF

Doors unlatched

What is the engine failure after Vr checklist?

Best glide

Find best place to land

Carb heat ON

Mixture Rich

FSV BOTH

Primer in and locked

Check Magnetos

If the engine fails during the initial climb phase, what is the minimum altitude at which a turn back to the airport can be considered safely attempted?

1000ft AGL

What is the engine failure in flight checklist?

Best glide

Find best place to land

Carb heat ON

Mixture Rich

FSV BOTH

Primer in and locked

Check Magnetos

What is the engine fire in flight checklist?

Mixture idle/cutoff

FSV OFF

Master Switch OFF

Cabin Heat & Air OFF

Airspeed 100 KIAS and increase as required to extinguish the fire.

What is the power off landing checklist?

emergency landing no engine power

What is the procedure for an in flight fire on the ground when the engine starts?

Throttle to 1700 RPM for 2 minutes

Mixture CUTOFF

What is the procedure for an in flight fire on the ground when the engine fails?

Mixture CUTOFF

Throttle FULL

Continue cranking for a few seconds

FSV OFF

Master Switch OFF

Ignition Switch OFF

Evacuate Aircraft, obtain fire extinguisher, and use it

What are the most important factors when selecting an appropriate location for an emergency landing?

wind direction, length, surface conditions, and obstacles.

What is the best glide airspeed?

65 KIAS

What does the best glide airspeed provide?

The airplane glides the farthest with the least loss of altitude

What effect would a decrease in gross weight have upon the best glide airspeed?

The best glide speed will be lower and the rate of descent will decrease as well.

What are the three emergency squawk codes?

7500: unlawful interference (hijacked)

7600: comms failure

7700: emergency

What is the emergency frequency and when should it be used?

121.5 MHz

If a pilot is not receiving ATC services or on an ATC frequency, they should use this frequency in the event of an emergency. It is monitored by many control towers and flight service stations

What steps would be taken if the engine suffered a partial failure?

precautionary landing with engine power

What is the first indication of an alternator failure?

Low Voltage light comes on (which means your alternator is not producing enough power for your plane).

An abnormal indication on the ammeter

What factors affect density altitude?

1. Altitude: the higher the altitude, the less dense the air

2. Temperature: the warmer the air, the less dense

3. Humidity

How does density altitude affect airplane performance?

Hot, high, and humid weather conditions could cause an accident in less time than you think.

How does weight affect airplane performance?

Longer takeoff run, shallow climb, faster touchdown speed, and longer landing roll

How does balance (CG) affect airplane performance?

By moving your CG forward and aft, you change the amount of tail down force and lift you need for stable flight.

5 factors that affect stall speed

1. wing configuration (flaps up or down)

2. Wing contamination (ice or frost on wings)

3. Weight (stall at higher airspeed)

4. Center of Gravity

5. Bank angle/wing loading

What is the purpose of IMSAFE?

It is for pilots to assess their health before flight.

What is the purpose of AV1ATE?

It is to remember the inspections that is required for an aircraft to be legally operated in the U.S

What is the purpose of AROW?

It is for basic documents and paperwork that must be on a plane for it to be legal.

What is the purpose of ATOMATOFLAMES?

A list of all equipment required for VFR day flight.

What is the purpose of FLAPS?

A list of all equipment required for VFR night flight.

What can be expected with an aft CG or forward CG?

By moving the CG FORWARD will make it easier to recover from a stall but will increase drag (which reduces cruise speed and fuel efficiency).

What reg in the FAR covers IMSAFE?

14 CFR Part 67 (Medical Standards)
14 CFR 91.17 (Alchohol and Drugs)

What reg in the FAR covers ATOMATOFLAMES?

91.205 (b)

What reg in the FAR covers NWKRAFT?

91.103

What reg in the FAR covers FLAPS?

91.205 (c)