1/55
Looks like no tags are added yet.
Name | Mastery | Learn | Test | Matching | Spaced | Call with Kai |
|---|
No analytics yet
Send a link to your students to track their progress
What is precision oncology?
It involves tailoring treatments primarily based on patient preferences, age, and gender
It refers exclusively to the use of targeted radiotherapy for localized tumors
It involves tailoring a specific treatment based on the specific genes or molecular signature that the tumor uses
It relies entirely on the histological grade and TNM staging of the tumor
It involves tailoring a specific treatment based on the specific genes or molecular signature that the tumor uses
In case a 55yo patient comes with a positive FOB without any other risk factor?
Colonoscopy
CT scan
Ultrasound
MRI
Colonoscopy
Follow up of a patient after colorectal cancer:
CEA + medical exam + CT + colonoscopy
Only CT
Only CEA and CT
Only colonoscopy
CEA + medical exam + CT + colonoscopy
Adjuvant anti-cancer drug therapy could be appropriate for several localized solid tumors such as non-small cell lung cancer, breast cancer, colon cancer, etc. What is it?
A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given after a radical surgical treatment aimed at decreasing the risk of relapse and to improve the probability of long-term survival (cure)
A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given before and after a radical surgical treatment aimed at decreasing the relapse-free interval
A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given before a radical surgical treatment aimed at increasing overall survival
A chemotherapy treatment given in combination with radiotherapy to reduce the risk of local relapse
A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given after a radical surgical treatment aimed at decreasing the risk of relapse and to improve the probability of long-term survival (cure)
Which of the following is not a prognostic factor in cancer patients?
Performance status
Weight-loss
Disease stage
Cancer family history
Cancer family history
Immunotherapy with immune checkpoint inhibitors (ICPi) represents the treatment of choice of several advanced-stage tumors. Which of the following is an example of an ICPi?
A monoclonal antibody directed against PD1
A monoclonal antibody directed against VEGF
A monoclonal antibody directed against EGFR
A TKI blocking PDL1
A monoclonal antibody directed against PD1
Which of the following gene marker panel is essential for planning anti-cancer drug therapy in advanced non-small cell lung cancer?
PDI, HER2, c-KIT, KRAS, PI3K
ER, PGR, HER2, Ki67, PIK
PDL1, EGFR, ALK, ROS1, BRAF
KRAS, NRAS, BRAF, HER2, MSI
PDL1, EGFR, ALK, ROS1, BRAF
A 57-year-old man, heavy smoker (40 pack/year), in good general conditions and without relevant comorbidities has been submitted to right superior pulmonary lobectomy with hilar-mediastinal lymph node dissection for a lung adenocarcinoma. Pathological stage is IIIA (pT2N2). Molecular profiling has shown PDL1 + 20% and the absence of activating gene mutations/rearrangements. A total body CT with contrast and a FDG PET CT has shown no evidence of distant metastases. There have been no post-operative complications and the patient has had a complete post-operative recovery. Is there indication for adjuvant therapy in this patient?
Yes, with a platinum-based chemotherapy regimen (i.e., cisplatin-vinorelbine) for 4 cycles
Yes, with immunotherapy (atezolizumab) for 1 year
Yes, with a TKI anti-EGFR (osimertinib) for 3 years
No, only clinical-radiological follow-up is recommended
Yes, with a platinum-based chemotherapy regimen (i.e., cisplatin-vinorelbine) for 4 cycles
The drug osimertinib is:
A monoclonal antibody anti-EGFR to be combined with chemotherapy for the treatment of metastatic colon adenocarcinoma
A PARP-inhibitor for treating any advanced tumor with BRCA mutations
A tyrosine-kinase inhibitor for the treatment of metastatic non-small cell lung cancer with EGFR mutations
A PDL1 inhibitor indicated for the treatment of metastatic melanoma without BRAF mutations
A tyrosine-kinase inhibitor for the treatment of metastatic non-small cell lung cancer with EGFR mutations
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for a 65-year-old patient with metastatic non-small cell lung cancer (squamous cell carcinoma histology), PDL1+ 30%, PS 1?
Single agent PD1-inhibitor (i.e., Pembrolizumab)
Combination of platinum-based chemotherapy and a PD1-inhibitor (pembrolizumab)
Platinum-based chemotherapy (i.e., carboplatin-taxol)
Platinum-based chemotherapy (i.e., carboplatin-taxol) combined with an antiangiogenic drug (i.e., bevacizumab)
Combination of platinum-based chemotherapy and a PD1-inhibitor (pembrolizumab)
A ductal breast cancer with ER + 90%, PGR+ 90%, Ki67 10%, HER2-negative is:
Luminal A
Luminal B
HER2-enriched
Basal-like
Luminal A
The drug trastuzumab is:
A monoclonal antibody anti-VEGF used in the treatment of colon, breast, lung, and ovarian cancers
A tyrosine-kinase inhibitor blocking VEGFR used in the treatment of colon, breast, lung, and ovarian cancers
A monoclonal antibody anti-HER2 indicated for the treatment of breast cancer with high expression and/or gene amplification of HER2
A monoclonal antibody anti-EGFR used in the treatment of advanced colon cancer
A monoclonal antibody anti-HER2 indicated for the treatment of breast cancer with high expression and/or gene amplification of HER2
A 72-year-old woman has been submitted to stereotactic breast biopsy after the identification at screening mammography of a microcalcification cluster at the upper external quadrant of left breast. Histological examination has shown an infiltrating ductal carcinoma G1 with highly positive hormone receptors (ER 90%, PGR 80%), HER2-negative, and a Ki67 of 10%. Clinical examination and radiological staging have not shown distant metastases. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment strategy?
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy (i.e., Anthracycline + Taxane) for 3 months followed by quadrantectomy and post-operative breast radiotherapy
Neoadjuvant hormone therapy (i.e., Tamoxifen) for 6 months followed by quadrantectomy and post-operative breast radiotherapy
Quadrantectomy + sentinel lymph node biopsy followed by post-operative breast radiotherapy and endocrine adjuvant therapy (i.e., aromatase inhibitor) for 5 years
Total mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection followed by endocrine adjuvant therapy with an aromatase inhibitor for 5 years
Quadrantectomy + sentinel lymph node biopsy followed by post-operative breast radiotherapy and endocrine adjuvant therapy (i.e., aromatase inhibitor) for 5 years
Which of the following molecular types of breast cancer is sensitive to immunotherapy?
Luminal A
Luminal B
HER2-enriched
Basal-like/Triple negative
Basal-like/Triple negative
In radically resected stage II-III colon cancer, is it recommended to perform a clinical-radiological follow-up?
No, it is not needed since no benefit on survival outcomes has been clearly demonstrated
Yes, with clinical examination, abdomen ultrasound, and serum tumor markers (CEA and CA19-9) every 6 months for the first 3 years and every 5 years thereafter
Yes, with clinical examination, serum tumor markers (CEA and CA19-9) and colonoscopy annually for 10 years
Yes, with clinical examination, serum tumor markers (CEA) every 3-4 months for the first 3 years and subsequently every 6 months for another 2 years, contrast-enhanced CT of thorax and abdomen every 6-12 months for 3-5 years, and pancolonoscopy at 1, 3, and 5 years from surgery
Yes, with clinical examination, serum tumor markers (CEA) every 3-4 months for the first 3 years and subsequently every 6 months for another 2 years, contrast-enhanced CT of thorax and abdomen every 6-12 months for 3-5 years, and pancolonoscopy at 1, 3, and 5 years from surgery
A 57-year-old man, heavy smoker (40 pack/year), in good general conditions and without relevant comorbidities has been submitted to right superior pulmonary lobectomy with hilar-mediastinal lymph node dissection for a lung adenocarcinoma. Pathological stage is IIIA (pT2N2). Molecular profiling has shown PDLI positive 20% and the absence of activating gene mutations/rearrangements. A total body CT with contrast and a FDG PET TAC has not shown evidence of distant metastases. There have been no post-operative complications and the patient has had a complete post-operative recovery. Is there indication for adjuvant therapy in this patient?
Yes, with a platinum-based chemotherapy regimen (i.e., cisplatin-vinorelbine) for 4 cycles
Yes, with immunotherapy (atezolizumab) for 1 year
Yes, with a TKI anti-EGFR (osimertinib) for 3 years
No, only clinical-radiological follow-up is recommended
Yes, with a platinum-based chemotherapy regimen (i.e., cisplatin-vinorelbine) for 4 cycles
Which of the following procedures would you prescribe to a 60-year-old male patient, with no relevant past medical history, with a positive screening fecal occult blood test?
CT scan of the chest and abdomen
Total Body PET-CT scan
Colonoscopy
MRI of the abdomen
Colonoscopy
Which of the following is the standard adjuvant treatment for a fit and young patient with a resected stage III colon cancer?
5-fluorouracil or capecitabine in association with oxaliplatin
5-fluorouracil in association with irinotecan
Capecitabine in association with irinotecan
Pembrolizumab
5-fluorouracil or capecitabine in association with oxaliplatin
A 65-year-old lady, due to protracted abdominal discomfort, hematochezia, and persistent constipation, has been submitted to a colonoscopy with biopsy which led to the diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the colon. Staging with CT scan and FDG PET has shown the presence of liver and peritoneal metastases. Which of the following molecular panels need to be performed to correctly plan medical therapy?
TTF1, PD1, EGFR, ALK
HER2, CKIT, PIK, PDL1
MSI, KRAS, NRAS, BRAF
HER2, PGR, ER, Ki67
MSI, KRAS, NRAS, BRAF
Which of the following is a non-hereditary condition for developing colorectal cancer?
Lynch Syndrome
Crohn's disease
FAP (familial adenomatous polyposis)
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
Crohn's disease
Where is the highest incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma?
Northern Europe
South America
Eastern Asia and sub-Saharan Africa
North America
Eastern Asia and sub-Saharan Africa
Which of the following is an approved first-line systemic therapy for advanced HCC?
Cabozantinib
Atezolizumab plus Bevacizumab combination
Osimertinib
Nivolumab plus Ipilimumab in combination with platinum-based chemotherapy
Atezolizumab plus Bevacizumab combination
Trans-arterial chemoembolization (TACE) in patients with HCC:
Is indicated only in patients with portal vein involvement
Is the standard of care for patients with HCC with distant metastasis
Is recommended as adjuvant therapy after resection for HCC
Is the standard of care for patients with intermediate stage HCC (BCLC B)
Is the standard of care for patients with intermediate stage HCC (BCLC B)
PSA is:
An organ-specific marker
A tumor-specific marker
An antibody
A circulating antibody
An organ-specific marker
What is the most frequent site of metastasis for prostate carcinoma?
Bone
Lung
Liver
Peritoneum
Bone
A 65-year-old man, without urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), presents a constant increase of PSA (20 ng/ml at a recent check-up compared to 12 ng/ml 3 months before, and 7 ng/ml 6 months before and 3 ng/ml 1 year before). At digital rectal examination, the prostate appears enlarged in dimensions and consistency. Trans-rectal ultrasound shows a non-homogeneous and enlarged prostate gland without focal nodular solid lesions. What is the first-choice next diagnostic test to be performed?
Prostate MRI
Repeat PSA with free/total ratio
Prostate biopsy
PET with PSMA tracer
Made up the answers
Prostate biopsy
Cabazitaxel is a new generation taxane that can be used in the treatment of metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer:
Before starting treatment with Docetaxel (Taxotere)
After progression on Docetaxel (Taxotere) treatment
Independently of a Docetaxel (Taxotere) treatment
It is not indicated in the treatment of prostate carcinoma
After progression on Docetaxel (Taxotere) treatment
Which of the below sentences, referring to melanoma, is correct?
Cutaneous melanoma represents <5% of the diagnosed cases of skin cancer, but it is the cause of >70% of the deaths attributable to skin cancer each year
Cutaneous melanoma represents >70% of the diagnosed cases of skin cancer, but it is the cause of <5% of the deaths attributable to skin cancer each year
Non-melanoma skin cancers represent <5% of the diagnosed cases of skin cancer, but they are the cause of >70% of the deaths attributable to skin cancer each year
Cutaneous melanoma represents > 5% of the diagnosed cases of skin cancer and it is the cause of <5% of the deaths attributable to skin cancer each year
Cutaneous melanoma represents <5% of the diagnosed cases of skin cancer, but it is the cause of >70% of the deaths attributable to skin cancer each year
Which is the most common somatic mutation in cutaneous melanoma?
KRAS G12C
BRAF V600K
BRAF V600E
NRAS Q61R
BRAF V600E
Which of the following drug categories have been shown to improve overall survival in metastatic melanoma patients?
Chemotherapy
Immune-checkpoint inhibitors and targeted therapies
Chemo-immunotherapy
Hormone therapy
Immune-checkpoint inhibitors and targeted therapies
In a 46-year-old woman with cutaneous melanoma, BRAF-wild type, PDL1 40%, with metastases to liver and brain, which is the most recommended treatment:
PD1-inhibitor (pembrolizumab or nivolumab)
TKI anti BRAF and MEK (Dabrafenib + Trametinib or Encorafenib + Binimetinib)
CTLA4-inhibitor (Ipilimumab or Tremelimumab)
Chemotherapy (carboplatin-taxol)
PD1-inhibitor (pembrolizumab or nivolumab)
According to the AIOM-AIRTUM 2020 data, what is the 5-year survival probability of patients with pancreatic cancer in Italy?
15-17%
7-9%
23-25%
28-30%
7-9%
A prognostic factor predicting survival outcome in patients with pancreatic cancer submitted to radical surgery:
T status
N status
Surgical margin status
All of above
All of above
Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is used for the treatment of pancreatic cancer both in the adjuvant and metastatic settings:
FOLFOX (Fluorouracil + Folinic Acid + Oxaliplatin)
PE (Platinum + Etoposide)
PG (Platinum + Gemcitabine)
FOLFIRINOX (Fluorouracil + Folinic Acid + Irinotecan + Oxaliplatin)
FOLFIRINOX (Fluorouracil + Folinic Acid + Irinotecan + Oxaliplatin)
Neoadjuvant anti-cancer drug therapy could be appropriate for several localized solid tumors such as non-small cell lung cancer, breast cancer, rectal cancer etc. What is it?
A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given after a radical surgical treatment aimed at increasing the probability of long-term survival
A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given before and after a radical surgical treatment aimed at decreasing the relapse-free-interval
A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given before a radical surgical treatment aimed at decreasing the risk of relapse and at improving the probability of long-term survival (cure)
A chemotherapy treatment given in combination with radiotherapy to reduce the risk of local relapse
A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given before a radical surgical treatment aimed at decreasing the risk of relapse and at improving the probability of long-term survival (cure)
A patient who is restricted in physically strenuous activity but still ambulatory and able to carry out work of light or sedentary nature, has a Performance Status (PS) according to ECOG grade of?
0
1
2
3
1
A 75yo man, prior smoker (20 pack/year), in good general conditions and without relevant comorbidities has been submitted to left superior pulmonary segmentectomy with hilar-mediastinal lymph node dissection for a lung adenocarcinoma. Pathological stage is IA (pT1N0). Molecular profiling has shown PDL1+ 80% and the absence of gene mutations/rearrangements. A total body CT with contrast and a FdG PET have shown no evidence of distant metastases. There have been no post-operative complications and the patient has had a complete post-operative recovery. Is there indication for adjuvant therapy in this patient?
Yes, with a platinum-based chemotherapy regimen (i.e. cisplatin-vinorelbine) for 4 cycles
Yes, with immunotherapy (atezolizumab) for 1 year
Yes, with a TKI anti-EGFR (osimertinib) for 3 years
No, only clinical-radiological follow-up is recommended
No, only clinical-radiological follow-up is recommended
The drug cetuximab is:
A monoclonal antibody anti-EGFR to be combined with chemotherapy for the treatment of metastatic colon adenocarcinoma
A PARP-inhibitor for treating any advanced tumor with BRCA mutations
A tyrosine-kinase inhibitor for the treatment metastatic non-small cell lung cancer with EGFR mutations
A PDL1 inhibitor indicated for the treatment of metastatic melanoma without BRAF mutations
A monoclonal antibody anti-EGFR to be combined with chemotherapy for the treatment of metastatic colon adenocarcinoma
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for a 70yo patient with metastatic non-small cell lung cancer (adenocarcinoma histology), PDL1+ 80%, PS 1?
Single agent PD1-inhibitor (i.e. Pembrolizumab)
Combination of platinum-based chemotherapy and a PDL1-inhibitor (atezolizumab)
Platinum-based chemotherapy (i.e. carboplatin-taxol)
Platinum-based chemotherapy (i.e. carboplatin-taxol) combined with an anti-angiogenic drug (i.e. bevacizumab)
Single agent PD1-inhibitor (i.e. Pembrolizumab)
A ductal breast cancer with ER+ 40%, PGR+ 10%, Ki67 30%, HER2-negative is:
Luminal A
Luminal B
HER2-enriched
Basal-like
Luminal B
The drug pertuzumab is:
A monoclonal antibody anti-VEGF used in the treatment of colon, breast, lung and ovarian cancers
A tyrosine-kinase inhibitor blocking VEGFR used in the treatment of colon, breast, lung and ovarian cancers
A monoclonal antibody anti-HER2 indicated for the treatment of breast cancer with high expression and/or gene amplification of HER2
A monoclonal antibody anti-EGFR used in the treatment of advanced colon cancer
A monoclonal antibody anti-HER2 indicated for the treatment of breast cancer with high expression and/or gene amplification of HER2
A 45 yo woman, never smoker in good general conditions and without relevant comorbidities has been submitted to right superior pulmonary lobectomy with hilar-mediastinal lympho-node dissection for a lung adenocarcinoma. Pathological stage is I IIIA (pT2N2). Molecular profiling has shown PDL1 positive 20% and the presence of an activating EGFR mutation. A total body CT with contrast and a FdG PET TAC has not shown evidence of distant metastases. There has been no post-operative complications and the patient has had a complete post-operative recovery. Is there indication for adjuvant therapy in this patient?
Yes, with a platinum-based chemotherapy regimen (carboplatin-taxol) for 4 cycles in combination with immunotherapy (atezolizumab) for 1 year
Yes, with immunotherapy (atezolizumab) for 1 year
Yes, with a TKI anti-EGFR (osimertinib) for 3 years
No, only clinical-radiological follow-up is recommended
Yes, with aTKI anti-EGFR (osimertinib) for 3 years
Which of the following is the standard adjuvant treatment for a fit and young patient with a resected high-risk stage II colon cancer?
5-fluorouracil or capecitabine in combination with oxaliplatin and bevacizumab
5-fluorouracil in combination with irinotecan
Single agent Capecitabine
Pembrolizumab
Single agent Capecitabine
A 65 yo lady, due to protracted abdominal discomfort, hematochezia and persistent constipation, has been submitted to a colonoscopy with biopsy which led to the diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the colon. Staging with CT scan has shown the presence of liver metastases. Which of the following molecular tests is not needed to correctly plan medical therapy?
EGFR mutations
BRAF mutations
MMR deficiency/MSI
KRAS mutations
EGFR mutations
Which of the following is a hereditary condition for developing a colorectal cancer?
Lynch Syndrome
Crohn's disease
IBD (Inflammatory bowel disease)
Ulcerative colitis
Lynch Syndrome
Which of following is a typical hallmark of hepatocellular carcinoma:
Age of onset in Western countries is between 30 and 50 years
Has a predominantly arterial vascularization
Is frequently observed in non-cirrhotic liver
Most of cases have actionable molecular alterations
Has a predominantly arterial vascularization
Atezolizumab plus Bevacizumab is a combination therapy used in HCC consisting of:
A monoclonal antibody against PD-L1 and a monoclonal antibody against VEGF
A monoclonal antibody against PD-L1 and a VEGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor
A monoclonal antibody against VEGFR and a monoclonal antibody against Her2
Two multitarget tyrosine kinase inhibitors
A monoclonal antibody against PD-L1 and a monoclonal antibody against VEGF
Early stage HCC (BCLC-A) is defined by the presence of:
A single tumor <2 cm without macrovascular invasion or extrahepatic spread in patients with good health status and preserved liver function
A solitary HCC irrespective of size or multifocal HCC up to 3 nodules (none of them > 3 cm), without macrovascular invasion or extrahepatic spread, in patients with good health status and preserved liver function
HCC with portal invasion and/or extrahepatic spread and preserved liver function
None of the above
A solitary HCC irrespective of size or multifocal HCC up to 3 nodules (none of them > 3 cm), without macrovascular invasion or extrahepatic spread, in patients with good health status and preserved liver function
In prostate mapping, what is the minimum number of tissue samples to be taken?
4
7
9
12
12
Which of the following is the most common side effect of hormonal treatment for prostate carcinoma?
Neutropenia
Thrombocytopenia
Cardiovascular side effects
Anemia
Cardiovascular side effects
Which of the following is the first-choice clinical examination in the diagnostic process of prostate cancer?
Abdominal palpation
Chest auscultation
Digital rectal examination
None of the above
Digital rectal examination
Which of the following is the most commonly used chemotherapy drug in the treatment of metastatic prostate cancer:
Platinum
Docetaxel (Taxotere)
Irinotecan
Fluorouracil
Docetaxel (Taxotere)
Which of the following drug categories has been shown to improve overall survival in metastatic melanoma patients?
Chemotherapy (DTIC)
Anti-PD1 monoclonal antibodies
KRAS inhibitors
Aromatase inhibitors
Anti-PD1 monoclonal antibodies
In a 46 yo woman with cutaneous melanoma, with BRAF V600 mutation, PDL1 0%, with metastases to the liver, which of the following is the most recommended treatment:
PDL1-inhibitor (durvalumab)
TKI anti BRAF and MEK (Dabrafenib+Trametinib or Encorafenib+ Binimetinib)
CTLA4-inhibitor (Ipilimumab)
Chemotherapy (carboplatin-taxol)
TKI anti BRAF and MEK (Dabrafenib+Trametinib or Encorafenib+ Binimetinib)
What is the median life expectancy of metastatic pancreatic cancer with standard chemotherapy treatments
3-6 months
8-12 months
18-24 months
3-4 years
8-12 months
which of the following is druggable molecular alteration in cutaneous melanoma?
a. KRAS G12C mutation
b. HER2 amplification
c. BRAF V600E mutation
d. RET rearrangement
c. BRAF V600E mutation