Medical Oncology

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Last updated 9:01 AM on 5/27/26
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56 Terms

1
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What is precision oncology?

  1. It involves tailoring treatments primarily based on patient preferences, age, and gender

  2. It refers exclusively to the use of targeted radiotherapy for localized tumors

  3. It involves tailoring a specific treatment based on the specific genes or molecular signature that the tumor uses

  4. It relies entirely on the histological grade and TNM staging of the tumor

  1. It involves tailoring a specific treatment based on the specific genes or molecular signature that the tumor uses

2
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In case a 55yo patient comes with a positive FOB without any other risk factor?  

  1. Colonoscopy  

  2. CT scan  

  3. Ultrasound

  4. MRI

  1. Colonoscopy  

3
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Follow up of a patient after colorectal cancer:  

  1. CEA + medical exam + CT + colonoscopy

  2. Only CT  

  3. Only CEA and CT 

  4. Only colonoscopy

  1. CEA + medical exam + CT + colonoscopy

4
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Adjuvant anti-cancer drug therapy could be appropriate for several localized solid tumors such as non-small cell lung cancer, breast cancer, colon cancer, etc. What is it?

  1. A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given after a radical surgical treatment aimed at decreasing the risk of relapse and to improve the probability of long-term survival (cure) 

  2. A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given before and after a radical surgical treatment aimed at decreasing the relapse-free interval 

  3. A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given before a radical surgical treatment aimed at increasing overall survival 

  4. A chemotherapy treatment given in combination with radiotherapy to reduce the risk of local relapse 

  1. A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given after a radical surgical treatment aimed at decreasing the risk of relapse and to improve the probability of long-term survival (cure) 

5
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Which of the following is not a prognostic factor in cancer patients?

  1. Performance status 

  2. Weight-loss 

  3. Disease stage 

  4. Cancer family history 

  1. Cancer family history 

6
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Immunotherapy with immune checkpoint inhibitors (ICPi) represents the treatment of choice of several advanced-stage tumors. Which of the following is an example of an ICPi? 

  1. A monoclonal antibody directed against PD1 

  2. A monoclonal antibody directed against VEGF 

  3. A monoclonal antibody directed against EGFR 

  4. A TKI blocking PDL1 

  1. A monoclonal antibody directed against PD1 

7
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Which of the following gene marker panel is essential for planning anti-cancer drug therapy in advanced non-small cell lung cancer? 

  1. PDI, HER2, c-KIT, KRAS, PI3K 

  2. ER, PGR, HER2, Ki67, PIK 

  3. PDL1, EGFR, ALK, ROS1, BRAF 

  4. KRAS, NRAS, BRAF, HER2, MSI 

  1. PDL1, EGFR, ALK, ROS1, BRAF 

8
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  1. A 57-year-old man, heavy smoker (40 pack/year), in good general conditions and without relevant comorbidities has been submitted to right superior pulmonary lobectomy with hilar-mediastinal lymph node dissection for a lung adenocarcinoma. Pathological stage is IIIA (pT2N2). Molecular profiling has shown PDL1 + 20% and the absence of activating gene mutations/rearrangements. A total body CT with contrast and a FDG PET CT has shown no evidence of distant metastases. There have been no post-operative complications and the patient has had a complete post-operative recovery. Is there indication for adjuvant therapy in this patient? 

    1. Yes, with a platinum-based chemotherapy regimen (i.e., cisplatin-vinorelbine) for 4 cycles 

    2. Yes, with immunotherapy (atezolizumab) for 1 year 

    3. Yes, with a TKI anti-EGFR (osimertinib) for 3 years 

    4. No, only clinical-radiological follow-up is recommended 


  1. Yes, with a platinum-based chemotherapy regimen (i.e., cisplatin-vinorelbine) for 4 cycles 

9
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The drug osimertinib is: 

  1. A monoclonal antibody anti-EGFR to be combined with chemotherapy for the treatment of metastatic colon adenocarcinoma 

  2. A PARP-inhibitor for treating any advanced tumor with BRCA mutations 

  3. A tyrosine-kinase inhibitor for the treatment of metastatic non-small cell lung cancer with EGFR mutations 

  4. A PDL1 inhibitor indicated for the treatment of metastatic melanoma without BRAF mutations

  1. A tyrosine-kinase inhibitor for the treatment of metastatic non-small cell lung cancer with EGFR mutations 

10
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Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for a 65-year-old patient with metastatic non-small cell lung cancer (squamous cell carcinoma histology), PDL1+ 30%, PS 1? 

  1. Single agent PD1-inhibitor (i.e., Pembrolizumab) 

  2. Combination of platinum-based chemotherapy and a PD1-inhibitor (pembrolizumab) 

  3. Platinum-based chemotherapy (i.e., carboplatin-taxol) 

  4. Platinum-based chemotherapy (i.e., carboplatin-taxol) combined with an antiangiogenic drug (i.e., bevacizumab) 


  1. Combination of platinum-based chemotherapy and a PD1-inhibitor (pembrolizumab) 

11
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A ductal breast cancer with ER + 90%, PGR+ 90%, Ki67 10%, HER2-negative is: 

  1. Luminal A 

  2. Luminal B 

  3. HER2-enriched 

  4. Basal-like

  1. Luminal A 

12
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  1. The drug trastuzumab is: 

    1. A monoclonal antibody anti-VEGF used in the treatment of colon, breast, lung, and ovarian cancers 

    2. A tyrosine-kinase inhibitor blocking VEGFR used in the treatment of colon, breast, lung, and ovarian cancers 

    3. A monoclonal antibody anti-HER2 indicated for the treatment of breast cancer with high expression and/or gene amplification of HER2 

    4. A monoclonal antibody anti-EGFR used in the treatment of advanced colon cancer 

  1. A monoclonal antibody anti-HER2 indicated for the treatment of breast cancer with high expression and/or gene amplification of HER2 

13
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  1. A 72-year-old woman has been submitted to stereotactic breast biopsy after the identification at screening mammography of a microcalcification cluster at the upper external quadrant of left breast. Histological examination has shown an infiltrating ductal carcinoma G1 with highly positive hormone receptors (ER 90%, PGR 80%), HER2-negative, and a Ki67 of 10%. Clinical examination and radiological staging have not shown distant metastases. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment strategy? 

    1. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy (i.e., Anthracycline + Taxane) for 3 months followed by quadrantectomy and post-operative breast radiotherapy 

    2. Neoadjuvant hormone therapy (i.e., Tamoxifen) for 6 months followed by quadrantectomy and post-operative breast radiotherapy 

    3. Quadrantectomy + sentinel lymph node biopsy followed by post-operative breast radiotherapy and endocrine adjuvant therapy (i.e., aromatase inhibitor) for 5 years 

    4. Total mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection followed by endocrine adjuvant therapy with an aromatase inhibitor for 5 years 

  1. Quadrantectomy + sentinel lymph node biopsy followed by post-operative breast radiotherapy and endocrine adjuvant therapy (i.e., aromatase inhibitor) for 5 years 

14
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Which of the following molecular types of breast cancer is sensitive to immunotherapy? 

  1. Luminal A 

  2. Luminal B 

  3. HER2-enriched 

  4. Basal-like/Triple negative 

  1. Basal-like/Triple negative 

15
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In radically resected stage II-III colon cancer, is it recommended to perform a clinical-radiological follow-up?

  1. No, it is not needed since no benefit on survival outcomes has been clearly demonstrated 

  2. Yes, with clinical examination, abdomen ultrasound, and serum tumor markers (CEA and CA19-9) every 6 months for the first 3 years and every 5 years thereafter 

  3. Yes, with clinical examination, serum tumor markers (CEA and CA19-9) and colonoscopy annually for 10 years 

  4. Yes, with clinical examination, serum tumor markers (CEA) every 3-4 months for the first 3 years and subsequently every 6 months for another 2 years, contrast-enhanced CT of thorax and abdomen every 6-12 months for 3-5 years, and pancolonoscopy at 1, 3, and 5 years from surgery 

  1. Yes, with clinical examination, serum tumor markers (CEA) every 3-4 months for the first 3 years and subsequently every 6 months for another 2 years, contrast-enhanced CT of thorax and abdomen every 6-12 months for 3-5 years, and pancolonoscopy at 1, 3, and 5 years from surgery 

16
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A 57-year-old man, heavy smoker (40 pack/year), in good general conditions and without relevant comorbidities has been submitted to right superior pulmonary lobectomy with hilar-mediastinal lymph node dissection for a lung adenocarcinoma. Pathological stage is IIIA (pT2N2). Molecular profiling has shown PDLI positive 20% and the absence of activating gene mutations/rearrangements. A total body CT with contrast and a FDG PET TAC has not shown evidence of distant metastases. There have been no post-operative complications and the patient has had a complete post-operative recovery. Is there indication for adjuvant therapy in this patient? 

  1. Yes, with a platinum-based chemotherapy regimen (i.e., cisplatin-vinorelbine) for 4 cycles 

  2. Yes, with immunotherapy (atezolizumab) for 1 year 

  3. Yes, with a TKI anti-EGFR (osimertinib) for 3 years 

  4. No, only clinical-radiological follow-up is recommended 

  1. Yes, with a platinum-based chemotherapy regimen (i.e., cisplatin-vinorelbine) for 4 cycles 

17
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Which of the following procedures would you prescribe to a 60-year-old male patient, with no relevant past medical history, with a positive screening fecal occult blood test? 

  1. CT scan of the chest and abdomen 

  2. Total Body PET-CT scan 

  3. Colonoscopy 

  4. MRI of the abdomen

  1. Colonoscopy 

18
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Which of the following is the standard adjuvant treatment for a fit and young patient with a resected stage III colon cancer?

  1. 5-fluorouracil or capecitabine in association with oxaliplatin 

  2. 5-fluorouracil in association with irinotecan 

  3. Capecitabine in association with irinotecan 

  4. Pembrolizumab 


  1. 5-fluorouracil or capecitabine in association with oxaliplatin 

19
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A 65-year-old lady, due to protracted abdominal discomfort, hematochezia, and persistent constipation, has been submitted to a colonoscopy with biopsy which led to the diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the colon. Staging with CT scan and FDG PET has shown the presence of liver and peritoneal metastases. Which of the following molecular panels need to be performed to correctly plan medical therapy? 

  1. TTF1, PD1, EGFR, ALK 

  2. HER2, CKIT, PIK, PDL1 

  3. MSI, KRAS, NRAS, BRAF 

  4. HER2, PGR, ER, Ki67

  1. MSI, KRAS, NRAS, BRAF 

20
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Which of the following is a non-hereditary condition for developing colorectal cancer? 

  1. Lynch Syndrome 

  2. Crohn's disease 

  3. FAP (familial adenomatous polyposis) 

  4. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome 

  1. Crohn's disease 

21
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Where is the highest incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma? 

  1. Northern Europe 

  2. South America 

  3. Eastern Asia and sub-Saharan Africa 

  4. North America 

  1. Eastern Asia and sub-Saharan Africa 

22
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Which of the following is an approved first-line systemic therapy for advanced HCC?

  1. Cabozantinib 

  2. Atezolizumab plus Bevacizumab combination 

  3. Osimertinib 

  4. Nivolumab plus Ipilimumab in combination with platinum-based chemotherapy 


  1. Atezolizumab plus Bevacizumab combination 

23
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Trans-arterial chemoembolization (TACE) in patients with HCC: 

  1. Is indicated only in patients with portal vein involvement 

  2. Is the standard of care for patients with HCC with distant metastasis 

  3. Is recommended as adjuvant therapy after resection for HCC 

  4. Is the standard of care for patients with intermediate stage HCC (BCLC B) 

  1. Is the standard of care for patients with intermediate stage HCC (BCLC B) 

24
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PSA is: 

  1. An organ-specific marker 

  2. A tumor-specific marker 

  3. An antibody 

  4. A circulating antibody 

  1. An organ-specific marker 

25
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What is the most frequent site of metastasis for prostate carcinoma? 

  1. Bone 

  2. Lung 

  3. Liver 

  4. Peritoneum 

  1. Bone 

26
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A 65-year-old man, without urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), presents a constant increase of PSA (20 ng/ml at a recent check-up compared to 12 ng/ml 3 months before, and 7 ng/ml 6 months before and 3 ng/ml 1 year before). At digital rectal examination, the prostate appears enlarged in dimensions and consistency. Trans-rectal ultrasound shows a non-homogeneous and enlarged prostate gland without focal nodular solid lesions. What is the first-choice next diagnostic test to be performed?

  1. Prostate MRI

  2. Repeat PSA with free/total ratio

  3. Prostate biopsy

  4. PET with PSMA tracer

Made up the answers

  1. Prostate biopsy

27
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Cabazitaxel is a new generation taxane that can be used in the treatment of metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer: 

  1. Before starting treatment with Docetaxel (Taxotere) 

  2. After progression on Docetaxel (Taxotere) treatment 

  3. Independently of a Docetaxel (Taxotere) treatment 

  4. It is not indicated in the treatment of prostate carcinoma 


  1. After progression on Docetaxel (Taxotere) treatment 

28
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Which of the below sentences, referring to melanoma, is correct?

  1. Cutaneous melanoma represents <5% of the diagnosed cases of skin cancer, but it is the cause of >70% of the deaths attributable to skin cancer each year 

  2. Cutaneous melanoma represents >70% of the diagnosed cases of skin cancer, but it is the cause of <5% of the deaths attributable to skin cancer each year 

  3. Non-melanoma skin cancers represent <5% of the diagnosed cases of skin cancer, but they are the cause of >70% of the deaths attributable to skin cancer each year 

  4. Cutaneous melanoma represents > 5% of the diagnosed cases of skin cancer and it is the cause of <5% of the deaths attributable to skin cancer each year

  1. Cutaneous melanoma represents <5% of the diagnosed cases of skin cancer, but it is the cause of >70% of the deaths attributable to skin cancer each year 

29
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Which is the most common somatic mutation in cutaneous melanoma? 

  1. KRAS G12C 

  2. BRAF V600K 

  3. BRAF V600E 

  4. NRAS Q61R 

  1. BRAF V600E 

30
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Which of the following drug categories have been shown to improve overall survival in metastatic melanoma patients?

  1. Chemotherapy 

  2. Immune-checkpoint inhibitors and targeted therapies 

  3. Chemo-immunotherapy 

  4. Hormone therapy 

  1. Immune-checkpoint inhibitors and targeted therapies 

31
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In a 46-year-old woman with cutaneous melanoma, BRAF-wild type, PDL1 40%, with metastases to liver and brain, which is the most recommended treatment: 

  1. PD1-inhibitor (pembrolizumab or nivolumab) 

  2. TKI anti BRAF and MEK (Dabrafenib + Trametinib or Encorafenib + Binimetinib) 

  3. CTLA4-inhibitor (Ipilimumab or Tremelimumab) 

  4. Chemotherapy (carboplatin-taxol) 

  1. PD1-inhibitor (pembrolizumab or nivolumab) 

32
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According to the AIOM-AIRTUM 2020 data, what is the 5-year survival probability of patients with pancreatic cancer in Italy?

  1. 15-17% 

  2. 7-9% 

  3. 23-25% 

  4. 28-30% 

  1. 7-9% 

33
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A prognostic factor predicting survival outcome in patients with pancreatic cancer submitted to radical surgery:

  1. T status 

  2. N status 

  3. Surgical margin status 

  4. All of above 

  1. All of above 

34
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Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is used for the treatment of pancreatic cancer both in the adjuvant and metastatic settings:

  1. FOLFOX (Fluorouracil + Folinic Acid + Oxaliplatin) 

  2. PE (Platinum + Etoposide) 

  3. PG (Platinum + Gemcitabine) 

  4. FOLFIRINOX (Fluorouracil + Folinic Acid + Irinotecan + Oxaliplatin) 

  1. FOLFIRINOX (Fluorouracil + Folinic Acid + Irinotecan + Oxaliplatin) 

35
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Neoadjuvant anti-cancer drug therapy could be appropriate for several localized solid tumors such as non-small cell lung cancer, breast cancer, rectal cancer etc. What is it? 

  1. A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given after a radical surgical treatment aimed at increasing the probability of long-term survival 

  2. A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given before and after a radical surgical treatment aimed at decreasing the relapse-free-interval 

  3. A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given before a radical surgical treatment aimed at decreasing the risk of relapse and at improving the probability of long-term survival (cure) 

  4. A chemotherapy treatment given in combination with radiotherapy to reduce the risk of local relapse 

  1. A treatment with anti-cancer drugs given before a radical surgical treatment aimed at decreasing the risk of relapse and at improving the probability of long-term survival (cure) 

36
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A patient who is restricted in physically strenuous activity but still ambulatory and able to carry out work of light or sedentary nature, has a Performance Status (PS) according to ECOG grade of? 

37
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A 75yo man, prior smoker (20 pack/year), in good general conditions and without relevant comorbidities has been submitted to left superior pulmonary segmentectomy with hilar-mediastinal lymph node dissection for a lung adenocarcinoma. Pathological stage is IA (pT1N0). Molecular profiling has shown PDL1+ 80% and the absence of gene mutations/rearrangements. A total body CT with contrast and a FdG PET have shown no evidence of distant metastases. There have been no post-operative complications and the patient has had a complete post-operative recovery. Is there indication for adjuvant therapy in this patient? 

  1. Yes, with a platinum-based chemotherapy regimen (i.e. cisplatin-vinorelbine) for 4 cycles 

  2. Yes, with immunotherapy (atezolizumab) for 1 year 

  3. Yes, with a TKI anti-EGFR (osimertinib) for 3 years  

  4. No, only clinical-radiological follow-up is recommended 

  1. No, only clinical-radiological follow-up is recommended 

38
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The drug cetuximab is: 

  1. A monoclonal antibody anti-EGFR to be combined with chemotherapy for the treatment of metastatic colon adenocarcinoma 

  2. A PARP-inhibitor for treating any advanced tumor with BRCA mutations 

  3. A tyrosine-kinase inhibitor for the treatment metastatic non-small cell lung cancer with EGFR mutations 

  4. A PDL1 inhibitor indicated for the treatment of metastatic melanoma without BRAF mutations 

  1. A monoclonal antibody anti-EGFR to be combined with chemotherapy for the treatment of metastatic colon adenocarcinoma 

39
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Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for a 70yo patient with metastatic non-small cell lung cancer (adenocarcinoma histology), PDL1+ 80%, PS 1? 

  1. Single agent PD1-inhibitor (i.e. Pembrolizumab) 

  2. Combination of platinum-based chemotherapy and a PDL1-inhibitor (atezolizumab) 

  3. Platinum-based chemotherapy (i.e. carboplatin-taxol) 

  4. Platinum-based chemotherapy (i.e. carboplatin-taxol) combined with an anti-angiogenic drug (i.e. bevacizumab) 

  1. Single agent PD1-inhibitor (i.e. Pembrolizumab) 

40
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A ductal breast cancer with ER+ 40%, PGR+ 10%, Ki67 30%, HER2-negative is:  

  1. Luminal A 

  2. Luminal B 

  3. HER2-enriched 

  4. Basal-like 

  1. Luminal B 

41
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The drug pertuzumab is:  

  1. A monoclonal antibody anti-VEGF used in the treatment of colon, breast, lung and ovarian cancers 

  2. A tyrosine-kinase inhibitor blocking VEGFR used in the treatment of colon, breast, lung and ovarian cancers 

  3. A monoclonal antibody anti-HER2 indicated for the treatment of breast cancer with high expression and/or gene amplification of HER2 

  4. A monoclonal antibody anti-EGFR used in the treatment of advanced colon cancer 

  1. A monoclonal antibody anti-HER2 indicated for the treatment of breast cancer with high expression and/or gene amplification of HER2 

42
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  1. A 45 yo woman, never smoker in good general conditions and without relevant comorbidities has been submitted to right superior pulmonary lobectomy with hilar-mediastinal lympho-node dissection for a lung adenocarcinoma. Pathological stage is I IIIA (pT2N2). Molecular profiling has shown PDL1 positive 20% and the presence of an activating EGFR mutation. A total body CT with contrast and a FdG PET TAC has not shown evidence of distant metastases. There has been no post-operative complications and the patient has had a complete post-operative recovery. Is there indication for adjuvant therapy in this patient? 

    1. Yes, with a platinum-based chemotherapy regimen (carboplatin-taxol) for 4 cycles in combination with immunotherapy (atezolizumab) for 1 year 

    2. Yes, with immunotherapy (atezolizumab) for 1 year 

    3. Yes, with a TKI anti-EGFR (osimertinib) for 3 years 

    4. No, only clinical-radiological follow-up is recommended 

  1. Yes, with aTKI anti-EGFR (osimertinib) for 3 years 

43
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Which of the following is the standard adjuvant treatment for a fit and young patient with a resected high-risk stage II colon cancer? 

  1. 5-fluorouracil or capecitabine in combination with oxaliplatin and bevacizumab 

  2. 5-fluorouracil in combination with irinotecan 

  3. Single agent Capecitabine 

  4. Pembrolizumab 

  1. Single agent Capecitabine 

44
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A 65 yo lady, due to protracted abdominal discomfort, hematochezia and persistent constipation, has been submitted to a colonoscopy with biopsy which led to the diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the colon. Staging with CT scan has shown the presence of liver metastases. Which of the following molecular tests is not needed to correctly plan medical therapy? 

  1. EGFR mutations 

  2. BRAF mutations 

  3. MMR deficiency/MSI 

  4. KRAS mutations 

  1. EGFR mutations 

45
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Which of the following is a hereditary condition for developing a colorectal cancer? 

  1. Lynch Syndrome 

  2. Crohn's disease 

  3. IBD (Inflammatory bowel disease) 

  4. Ulcerative colitis 

  1. Lynch Syndrome 

46
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Which of following is a typical hallmark of hepatocellular carcinoma:  

  1. Age of onset in Western countries is between 30 and 50 years 

  2. Has a predominantly arterial vascularization 

  3. Is frequently observed in non-cirrhotic liver 

  4. Most of cases have actionable molecular alterations 

  1. Has a predominantly arterial vascularization 

47
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Atezolizumab plus Bevacizumab is a combination therapy used in HCC consisting of: 

  1. A monoclonal antibody against PD-L1 and a monoclonal antibody against VEGF 

  2. A monoclonal antibody against PD-L1 and a VEGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor  

  3. A monoclonal antibody against VEGFR and a monoclonal antibody against Her2 

  4. Two multitarget tyrosine kinase inhibitors 

  1. A monoclonal antibody against PD-L1 and a monoclonal antibody against VEGF

48
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Early stage HCC (BCLC-A) is defined by the presence of: 

  1. A single tumor <2 cm without macrovascular invasion or extrahepatic spread in patients with good health status and preserved liver function 

  2. A solitary HCC irrespective of size or multifocal HCC up to 3 nodules (none of them > 3 cm), without macrovascular invasion or extrahepatic spread, in patients with good health status and preserved liver function 

  3. HCC with portal invasion and/or extrahepatic spread and preserved liver function 

  4. None of the above 

  1. A solitary HCC irrespective of size or multifocal HCC up to 3 nodules (none of them > 3 cm), without macrovascular invasion or extrahepatic spread, in patients with good health status and preserved liver function 

49
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In prostate mapping, what is the minimum number of tissue samples to be taken? 

  1. 12

  1. 12

50
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Which of the following is the most common side effect of hormonal treatment for prostate carcinoma? 

  1. Neutropenia 

  2. Thrombocytopenia 

  3. Cardiovascular side effects 

  4. Anemia 

  1. Cardiovascular side effects 

51
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Which of the following is the first-choice clinical examination in the diagnostic process of prostate cancer? 

  1. Abdominal palpation  

  2. Chest auscultation 

  3. Digital rectal examination  

  4. None of the above 

  1. Digital rectal examination  

52
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Which of the following is the most commonly used chemotherapy drug in the treatment of metastatic prostate cancer: 

  1. Platinum 

  2. Docetaxel (Taxotere) 

  3. Irinotecan 

  4. Fluorouracil 

  1. Docetaxel (Taxotere) 

53
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Which of the following drug categories has been shown to improve overall survival in metastatic melanoma patients?  

  1. Chemotherapy (DTIC) 

  2. Anti-PD1 monoclonal antibodies 

  3. KRAS inhibitors 

  4. Aromatase inhibitors 

  1. Anti-PD1 monoclonal antibodies 

54
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In a 46 yo woman with cutaneous melanoma, with BRAF V600 mutation, PDL1 0%, with metastases to the liver, which of the following is the most recommended treatment: 

  1. PDL1-inhibitor (durvalumab) 

  2. TKI anti BRAF and MEK (Dabrafenib+Trametinib or Encorafenib+ Binimetinib) 

  3. CTLA4-inhibitor (Ipilimumab) 

  4. Chemotherapy (carboplatin-taxol) 

  1. TKI anti BRAF and MEK (Dabrafenib+Trametinib or Encorafenib+ Binimetinib) 

55
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What is the median life expectancy of metastatic pancreatic cancer with standard chemotherapy treatments 

  1. 3-6 months 

  2. 8-12 months  

  3. 18-24 months 

  4. 3-4 years 

  1. 8-12 months  

56
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which of the following is druggable molecular alteration in cutaneous melanoma?

a. KRAS G12C mutation

b. HER2 amplification

c. BRAF V600E mutation

d. RET rearrangement

c. BRAF V600E mutation