VTNE Practice Test #1

Which of the following urine specific gravity values would indicate hyposthenuria? a. 1.005 b. 1.011 c. 1.020 d. 1.035

Which of the following urine specific gravity values would indicate hyposthenuria? a. 1.005 b. 1.011 c. 1.020 d. 1.035

A

Which of the following would NOT be an example of parenteral drug administration? a. Intramuscular (IM) b. Subcutaneous (SQ) c. Per os (PO) d. Intravenous (IV)

C

If a certain drug has a half-life of 2 hours, what percentage of the drug will be left in circulation after 4 hours? a. 95% b. 75% c. 50% d. 25%

D

A 55 lb female dog is to receive 2 mg/kg of carprofen every 12 hours. What dose should be given every 24 hours? a. 100 mg b. 75 mg c. 50 mg d. 25 mg

A

Furosemide is often administered to patients to promote fluid loss. Which electrolyte should be monitored with chronic furosemide use? a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Calcium d. Magnesium

A

Gentamicin is an example of which antibiotic class known to have nephrotoxic and ototoxic potential, even at therapeutic levels? a. Pennicillins b. Tetracyclines c. Lincosamides d. Aminoglycosides

D

A 500 kg steer has been diagnosed with respiratory disease. The veterinarian instructs you to give 2.5 mg/kg SC of 100 mg/mL Baytril 100 (enrofloxacin). What volume will you administer? a. 15 mL b. 12.5 mL c. 12.5 L d. 12.5 mg

B

A 10 year old male neutered Shih Tzu has been repeatedly administered prednisone for chronic otitis. The owner now report that he is polyuric/polydipsic and polyphagic and has a pot-bellied appearance. Which of the following conditions is likely causing these signs? a. Iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism b. Iatrogenic hypoadrenocorticism c. Cushing's disease d. Addison's disease

A

A second lactation Jersey cow has recently freshened. Upon examination, the veterinarian determines that she has milk fever, also known as hypocalcemia. How should IV calcium be administered? a. as fast as possible b. with glucose for increased absorption c. very slowly d. the rate of administration does not matter

C

Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that is known to cause aplastic anemia in humans via bone marrow suppression. For which category of animal is the use of this drug prohibited in the United States? a. Horses b. Cats c. Dogs d. Cows

D

Which type of substance requires a Drug Enforcement Administration license for purchase and diligent logs kept daily in addition to the prescription directions typically noted in the medical record? a. Antibiotics b. Anticonvulsants c. Opioids d. Anticonvulsants and Opioids

C

Which of the following is an acceptable abbreviation meaning three times a day with regard to medication administration? a. SID b. TID c. BID d. QID

B

Antimicrobial residue can be inadvertently consumed by humans through the consumption of beef. Diary and poultry products are an ongoing public health concern due to their risk for antimicrobial residue as well. Which of the following are used to mitigate residue risk? a. Expiration dates b. Withdrawal times c. Administration holds d. United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) certification

B

A 3 month old intact female Lab puppy presents to the veterinarian with a history of purulent vaginal discharge and a history of difficultly becoming house trained. What sample should be evaluated before starting antibiotics? a. Urinalysis obtained by free-catch collection b. Urine culture and sensitivity obtained via cystocentesis c. Urine culture and sensitivity obtained by free catch d. Urinalysis obtained by catheterization

B

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate reason for compounding a medication? a. The available concentration of the commercial product is not appropriate for the patient b. An alternative route of administration is needed c. A Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved product does not exist to treat the specific ailment d. The FDA-approved product is more expensive than a compounded alternative

D

Organophosphate compounds are commonly used in agriculture for pest management. Organophosphate toxicity results in stimulation of the muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic nervous system. Which of the following is a characteristic sign of organophosphate toxicity? a. Decreased tear production b. Miosis c. Tachycardia d. Decreased saliva production

B

Poultry and swine producers are often required to medicate large populations. Which of the following is a common route to administer medications in these two species to reduce labor needs and assure herd-wide compliance? a. medications dissolved into the drinking water b. oral tablets are given individually c. topical application is performed d. individual injections are given

A

A 6 year old neutered male cat presents for a routine dental procedure during which multiple teeth are extracted. He is given a long-acting buprenorphine that is FDA approved for use in cats to help control postoperative pain. Later in the day, he is found to have pale mucous membranes and is nonresponsive. The veterinarian administers an opioid reversal, which resolves the signs. To which of the following agencies would it be appropriate to report an adverse drug event? a. Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) b. United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) d. American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA)

C

Which of the following opioid medications should not be administered with a full mu-agonist for concerns of reduced efficacy? a. Hydromorphone b. Butorphanol c. Ketamine d. Diazepam

B

Which of the following opioids has an extremely short duration of action and must be administered as a constant rate infusion in order to maintain therapeutic levels? a. Fentanyl b. Morphine c. Methadone d. Buprenorphine

A

Which of the following is an example of an absorbable suture material? a. Nylon (Dermalon) b. Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl) c. Polyeter (Ethibond) d. Silk

B

You are preparing a 12-year old neutered male Shih Tzu for an enucleation. After clipping the surgical area, which type of scrub would be most appropriate for cleaning the area? a. Alcohol b. Chlorhexidine gluconate c. Povidone iodine d. Peroxide

C

Which type of scissors should never be used to cut drape material? a. Metzenbaum b. Mayo c. Bandage d. Suture

A

You are tasked with determining which instruments should be included in a surgery pack to be used for feline ovariohysterectomies. The veterinarian will not have a sterile assistant for these procedures. Which needle driver would be the most appropriate to include? a. Olsen-Hegar b. Mayo-Hegar c. Allis d. Mosquito

A

You are tasked with wrapping surgery packs for sterilization. What is the minimum amount of sterilization indicators that should be used and in what location? a. One: the indicator strip should be located inside the innermost pack wrap b. One: the indicator tape should be located on the outside of the pack c. Two: the indicator strip should be located between the folds of a drape and indicator tape on the outer pack wrap d. Two: the indicator strip should be located on top of the instruments and indicator tape on the outer pack wrap

C

You are giving postsurgery discharge instructions to the owner of Bella, a 6 month old laborador, who was admitted for an ovariohysterectomy. During the patient's discharge, the owner is insistent that Bella will not need an Elizabethan collar (E-collar). What is the most compelling reason for the use of an E-collar? a. To prevent overactivity b. To prevent postoperative hemorrhage c. To prevent postoperative infection d. To prevent would dehiscence and subsequent evisceration

D

You are assisting with a dystocia in a dairy cow. The veterinarian determines that the calf is unable to be delivered vaginally and that a cesarean section is the safest approach for the calf and the cow. What anatomical are should you clip in preparation for a standing procedure? a. ventral midline b. left paralumbar fossa area c. right paralumbar fossa area d. left paramedian abdomen

B

Which of the following is the correct order when preparing instruments for the autoclave? a. rinse instruments with tap water, rinse in instrument milk, allow to dry, and wrap for sterilization b. rinse instruments with tap water and instrument cleaner, clean in an ultrasonic cleaner, allow to dry, and wrap for sterilization c. Rinse instruments in distilled water, clean in an ultrasonic cleaner, allow to dry, and wrap for sterilization d. rinse instruments in distilled water and instrument cleaner, clean in an ultrasonic cleaner, rinse in instrument milk, allow to dry, and wrap for sterilization

D

Which of the following is not required attire for all staff when in the surgery suite? a. gloves b. hair cover c. mask d. show covers

A

Which of the following group of suture gauges is listing in ascending order of size (smallest to largest)? a. 3, 2, 1 b. 1-0, 2-0, 3-0 c. 2-0, 1-0, 0, 1, 2 d. 9-0, 10-0, 11-0

C

You are assisting a surgeon performing a gastrotomy on a 6 month old female kitten who has ingested a small rubber ball. Based on the risk of contamination, how would you classify this procedure? a. clean b. clean-contaminated c. contaminated d. dirty

B

You are assisting the veterinarian with an exploratory laparotomy in a 3 year old recently fresh dairy cow for suspicion of a displaced abdomen. When the procedure is performed standing, where should you secure the cow's tail to prevent contamination? a. to the gate b. to the post c. to her leg d. to the ground

C

Ruminants are typically castrated within the first few weeks of life. Which life threatening infection that ruminants are specifically predisposed to is most commonly seen related to this procedure? a. tetanus b. botulism c. rabies d. listeria

A

A 6 month old feedlot calf is suffering from recurrent bloat. What procedure refers to long term opening in the rumen to allow for release of gas? a. gastrotomy b. rumenotomy c. rumenostomy d. rumenectomy

C

A 7 year old neutered male Dachshund presents with a history of being attacked by a larger dog. He is found to have puncture wounds along his dorsum, and the veterinarian decides to allow them to heal on their own. This is an example of what type of healing? a. first intention b. second intention c. third intention d. debridement

B

A 3 year old thoroughbred filly has undergone colic surgery within the past 24 hours. What is an important part of your follow up physical exam that should be monitored to identify laminitis? a. distal lateral pulses b. fecal output c. packed cell volume d. gastric reflux

A

What is the minimal amount of time of preoperative fasting required for equines? a. 6 hours b. 8 hours c. 10 hours d. 12 hours

D

Which of the following equine surgeries is typically performed standing? a. laparotomy b. arthroscopy c. enucleation d. cesarean section

C

A 4 year old neutered male Great Dane presents with a gastric dilation and volvulus requiring emergency surgery, including a splenectomy. What is the most common arrhythmia following this procedure? a. atrioventricular (AV) block b. atrial fibrillation c. supraventricular tachycardia d. premature ventricular contractions

D

You are assisting with a dental prophylaxis, and the veterinarian asks you to make a note regarding the pathology noted on the upper left permanent canine tooth. Using the Triadan system, what number would you assign this tooth? a. 104 b. 204 c. 304 d. 404

B

A 6 year old male neutered chihuahua presents for dental prophylaxis. During the procedure, several teeth are noted to have significant gingival recession and tooth mobility. Extraction is required. Which of the following would be the most appropriate radiographs to take? a. no radiographs are necessary if there is visible dental disease b. pre-extraction radiographs for teeth with gross pathology c. postextraction radiographs only to identify incomplete extraction d. pre-extraction radiographs of the entire oral cavity followed by postextraction radiographs of the extracted teeth

D

A 2 year old intact male cat presents for an annual exam. During the physical exam, the veterinarian notes severe inflammation of the entire oral cavity including the gums, tongue, and soft palate and diagnoses the patient with stomatitis. What is the most effective treatment option for long term management of this condition? a. immunosuppressive doses of corticosteroids b. lifelong antibiotic therapy c. full-mouth tooth extractions d. dental cleaning with stringent at-home care

C

A 5 year old intact female golden retriever presents with a suborbital swelling below her right eye. The owner mentions that she has a habit of retrieving rocks in addition to tennis balls, sticks, and frisbees. Fracture of what tooth is most commonly associated with an abscess in this location? a. upper right canine b. upper right first premolar c. upper right carnassial d. upper right first molar

C

What is the name of the anatomical structure that holds the tooth to the alveolar bone and appears as a radiolucent line between the two structures radiographically? a. apex b. periodontal ligament c. crown d. cementoenamel junction

B

When performing a dental cleaning, what is the step that will smooth microcracks and ensure complete removal of plaque? a. ultrasonic scaling b. polishing c. hand scaling d. gingival probing

B

Which of the following is an appropriate method for performing a dental procedure in a small animal? a. general anesthesia b. heavy sedation c. light sedation d. no sedation

A

Equine and bovine species have teeth that continue to grow throughout their lifetime. What is the term used to refer to this type of tooth? a. permanent b. deciduous c. hypsodont d. diphyodont

C

Which of the following species have a dental pad in place of their upper incisors? a. canines and felines b. ruminants and camelids c. canines and equines d. equines and camelides

B

Which of the following local anesthetic blocks would provide anesthesia to the bone, teeth, and soft tissue rostral to the side on which the block is placed? a. maxillary infraorbital b. inferior alveolar c. middle mental d. caudal maxillary

A

Aerosolization of intraoral bacteria during dental prophylaxis poses a significant risk to those within what distance of the dental scaler? a. 12 feet b. 10 feet c. 8 feet d. 6 feet

D

Equines and, less frequently, ruminants require dental care to address pathology. The term used to refer to this process is called floating the teeth. What does this process involve? a. scaling the teeth to removal plaque and tartar b. filling the overgrown teeth to remove points that may cause intraoral trauma c. extracting overgrown teeth d. gingival probing to remove deep pockets of plaque and tartar

B

What is the most common dental issue for lagomorphs such as rabbits? a. dental caries b. crown fractures c. tooth overgrowth d. retained deciduous teeth

C

Which of the following terms refers to the density of urine when compared to water? a. osmolarity b. specific gravity c. color d. clarity

B

Which of the following cell types routinely appears artifcially decreased on an automated count? a. neutrophils b. platelets c. monocytes d. red blood cells

B

Which of the following leukocytes is the most abundant in the blood of cattle? a. monocytes b. neutrophils c. erythrocytes d. lymphocytes

D

Which of the following ectoparasites is the vector for West Nile virus and Eastern equine encephalitis? a. flea b. tick c. mosquito d. mayfly

C

You have drawn a blood sample and performed centrifugation. The serum appears to be a shade of white above the clot. What is the classification of this serum sample? a. lipemic b. icteric c. hemolyzed d. hypoproteinemia

A

You have assisted in the resection of a large, vascular mammary mass. During postsurgery recovery, you notice that the patient's mucous membranes appear pale. The veterinarian asks you to run a packed cell volume value. The result is 20%. What does this value indicate? a. the total cells within the blood sample b. the percentage of white blood cells within the sample c. the percentage of red blood cells within the sample d. the total protein within sample

C

You have been asked to evaluate a blood smear in order to perform a manual platelet count. What objective should you use, and what factor should you multiply each platelet observed in each field by to calculate the platelet amount manually? a. 10x; 10,000 b. 40x; 10,000 c. 40x; 20,000 d. 100x; 20,000

D

A 5 year old labrador presents with a 3 day history of excessive head shaking and dark discharge from the ears. The veterinarian asks you to review an ear cytology using the Diff-Quik stain, and you note the following structures. What is the identifiication of the pictured organisms? a. malassezia b. cocci-shaped bacteria c. rod-shaped bacteria d. gram-positive bacteria

A

You have collected a milk sample for in-house bacterial culture. Which type of plate would you select to isolate Escherichia coli? a. blood agar plate/media (BAP) b. macconkey agar (MAC) c. mueller-hinton agar (MHA) d. phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA)

B

A 1 year old spayed female himalayan presents for evaluation after his owner was diagnosed with ringworm. The cat does not have signs of alopecia. Which of the following diagnostic procedures would be advised? a. woods lamp evaluation b. skin scrape and microscopic examination c. dermatophyte test medium (DTM) fungal culture d. hair pluck with microscopic evaluation

C

A 4 year old intact male coonhound with a fever, lameness and a history of anorexia. The veterinarian is concerned about tick-borne disease and prescribes doxycycline and requests for the submission of whole blood for a comprehensive tick disease polymerase chain reaction panel. When should the sample be collected with regard to the antibiotic administered? a. prior to the antibiotic administration b. 12 hours after the first antibiotic dose c. 24 hours after the first antibiotic dose d. timing is not a concern with polymerase chain reaction testing

A

What type of urinary crystal may be an indicator of disease but may also be present as an artifact of storage? a. calcium oxalate b. struvite c. cystine d. leucine

B

Urinary reagent strips are used to identify the presence of blood in a sample. Which of the following will NOT cause a positive result on the test pad? a. myoglobin b. hemoglobin c. erythrocytes d. leukocytes

D

Which of the following urine specific gravity values would indicate hyposthenuria? a. 1.005 b. 1.011 c. 1.020 d. 1.035

A

What is the preferred technique for performing a fecal floatation? a. gross examination b. centrifugation using sheather's sugar solution c. direct smear d. flotation with sodium nitrate solution

B

You are assisting with a blood draw on a 14 year old spayed pomeranian with a history of polyuria/polydipsia. You obtain a small amount of blood using a 26 gauge needle. The resulting sample is described as 3+ hemolysis. Which of following chemistry values will be affected by this degree of hemolysis? a. glucose b. creatinine c. potassium d. albumin

C

A newborn calf is suspected to have failure of passive transfer (FPT). What is an inexpensive, cow-side test that would support this diagnose? a. total protein b. glucose c. temperature d. packed cell volume

A

A 4 year old intact female huskey presents with a distended abdomen and a history of diarrhea. Which of the following laboratory values would be expected for protein-losing enteropathy (PLE)? a. hypoalbuminemia b. hypoglobulinemia c. panhypoproteinemia d. anemia

C

Which of the following tests would be MOST indicated for a patient with persistent, severe nonregenerative anemia? a. blood smear evaluation b. bone marrow evaluation c. abdominal ultrasound d. survey radiographs

B

Which of the following criteria would indicate a dehydration status of approximately 5%? a. tachycardia b. severely dry mucous membranes c. enophthalmos d. minimal loss of skin turgor

D

A 2 year old intact male pit bull presents as a suspected hit by car. He displays tachycardia and hypotension. The veterinarian requests that an IV catheter be placed in preparation for a fluid bolus as well as a complete blood count and serum chemistry. Which vein would be preferred for the blood draw? a. cephalic b. lateral saphenous c. jugular d. medial saphenous

C

Identify the following abnormally: a. atrial fibrillation b. premature ventricular contraction c. AV block d. ventricular tachycardia

B

You are assisting with nasogastric intubation of 12 hour old female horse. Which of the following should NOT be used to confirm proper placement of the tube before administering water? a. confirming negative pressure through aspiration of the tube b. auscultation of the abdomen while an assistant blows/pumps air through the tube c. visualization of the end of the tube passing through the esophagus externally d. aspirating air back through the tube

D

What is the maximum amount of blood that you should draw from an avian? a. 1 mL b. 5% of body weight c. 5 mL d. 1% of body weight

D

Which of the following viruses causes neurologic signs and is almost 100% fatal if contracted by either humans or animals? a. distemper b. rabies c. west nile d. eastern equine encephalitis

B

A 3 year old thoroughbred stallion presents for a laceration repair on his distal forelimb. The owner voices a concern for development of proud flesh. What is proud flesh? a. infection of the tissue b. dehiscence of the laceration repair c. exuberant granulation tissue d. excessive scar tissue

C

Which of the following bandage layers provide padding and absorbs exudate? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. fortified layer

B

A 2 year old neutered male feline presents for urinary obstruction. What electrolyte abnormalities should you be most concerned for in a patient with urinary obstruction? a. elevated blood urea nitrogen b. elevated creatinine c. elevated phosphorus d. elevated potassium

D

Which type of blood product would be most indicated for a patient with thrombocytopenia? a. fresh whole blood b. packed red blood cells c. oxyglobin d. platelet-rich plasma

D

Which of the following would be a contraindication to obtain a urine sample via cystocentesis? a. suspected bladder neoplasia b. obese patient c. suspected renal disease d. suspected uroliths

A

Which of the following tests is used to identify an injury to the corneal epithelium? a. schirmer teat test b. fluorescein stain c. tonometry d. gonioscopy

B

An 8 year old Shih Tzu presents with severe pyoderma, and the veterinarian prescribes a medicated bath with chlorhexidine based shampoo. What is the ideal time frame to let the shampoo make contact with the patient? a. 40-50 minutes b. 30-40 minutes c. 20-30 minutes d. 10-20 minutes

D