C
A disease prevention strategy based on the shared commitment of everyone in the office is referred to as:
A. An OSHA standard on occupational safety B. a FDA recommendation on patient safety C. a culture of safety D. an EPA regulation
D
After the successful development of a safety culture in a dental office what comes next?
A. Commitment of management to improve patient and worker safety. B. Identify and remove hazards in the work environment. C. Determine the cause of identified problems. D. Give rewards.
A
What is the least helpful action that can be taken by employers to help ensure a safety culture in the workplace?
A. Requiring staff to wear heavy utility gloves when recapping contaminated needles by hand. B. Openly supporting the safety culture through supply of resources. C. Engaging worker participation in safety planning. D. Having written safety guidelines and policies.
D
When should dental healthcare personnel first be introduced to the office’s culture of safety?
A. During their first participation in the overall infection prevention program evaluation B. Just before caring for their first infectious patient C. After their first exposure incident D. When they are first hired
B
What is the least important aspect of a safety culture?
A. Adherence to safety guidelines B. Having patients review the safety plan C. Worker participation in safety planning D. Having appropriate protective equipment available
D
Who should be involved in creating a safety culture in a dental facility?
A. The dentist employer, dental assistants, and hygienists. B. The dental assistants, hygienists, and front office staff. C. The dental assistants and hygienists D. Everyone in the facility
A
What agency has developed a survey to determine the safety climate in a dental office?
A. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health B. American Dental Assistants Association C. Food and Drug Administration D. American Dental Association
A
What is least important in setting the stage for safety in the office?
A. Making sure there is a system to help ensure all appt times are filled every day. B. Making sure postexposure management procedures are in place. C. Making sure the sterilizer maintenance is up-to-date. D. Making sure the dental unit water is of good quality.
B.
What is the least safe procedure?
A. Changing into heavy utility gloves for operative clean-up B. Hand-scrubbing contaminated instruments C. Having the face mask covering the nose. D. Using good quality dental unit water
D.
What is a safe procedure?
A. Not monitoring the sterilization process B. Not wearing protective eyewear C. Not wearing gloves at chairside D. Not reusing disposables
C.
What is the best way to evaluate performance of hand hygiene by the office staff?
A. Periodically measuring level of handwashing soap used. B. Keep track of approximate number of paper towels used. C. Observe staff performing hand hygiene D. Measure the amount of alcohol hand-rub used every week.
C.
What is the best way to evaluate performance of surface asepsis procedures?
A. Measure the amount of disinfectant used every week. B. Interview the staff asking how they perform surface asepsis C. Observe the staff performing surface cleaning and disinfection. D. Estimate weekly the number of towels used to wipe down the surfaces.
A.
What infection prevention element provides the least protection to patients?
A. Wearing of protective eyewear by the dental team B. Immunization of the dental team against influenza C. When dental team wears exam gloves at chairside D. Dividing instrument processing area into defined sites for decontamination, packaging, sterilization, and storage
C.
What infection prevention element provides protection to both patients and the dental team?
A. The dental team wearing protective eyewear B. Having sharps container close to chairside C. The dental team being immunized against Hep B. D. Disinfecting a denture before sending to the dental lab
B.
What infection prevention element provides protection to patients but not the dental team?
A. Hand hygiene by the dental team B. Packaging instruments prior to sterilzation C. When the dental team wears gloves at chairside D. The dental team wearing face masks at chairside
A
What office safety element provides protection to the dental team but not patients?
A. The dental team's understanding of the Hazard Communication Standard B. Use of the rubber dam C. Use of disposables at chairside D. The dental team wearing protective clothing
A
What infection prevention element provides protection to patients but not the dental team?
A. Aseptic retrieval of supplies B. Dental team gloving at chairside C. Dental team wearing protective eyewear D. High-volume evacuation
D.
CDC’s Bloodborne Pathogens Standard recommends the development of a written program to maintain occupational health for dental workers that include medical conditions and work restriction, immunizations, postexposure medical evaluations and:
A. Results of patient surveys for treatment satisfaction B. Record of patient appt cancellations C. Emergency escape routes D. Immunizations
C.
How many shots are required for with the hepatitis B vaccine?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
A.
Which of the following best describes the recommended inoculation schedule for the hepatitis B vaccine?
A. First dose followed 1 month later by a second dose and a third dose 6 months after the first. B. First dose followed 2 month later by a second dose and a third dose 6 months after the first. C. First dose followed 6 month later by a second dose and a third dose 8 months after the first. D. First dose followed by one additional dose every year.
D.
How often should one receive a “flu” shot?
A. Once every 20 years B. Once every 10 years C. Once every 5 years D. Once every year
C
What is the general nature of the hepatitis B vaccine?
A. It contains a live virus B. It contains a whole inactivated virus C. It contains a recombinant vaccine D. It contains an immune globulin
A
There is no vaccine for which of the following diseases?
A. Hepatitis C B. Measles C. Mumps D. Influenza
A.
A vaccine is not available in the US for:
A. Human immunodeficiency virus disease B. Measles C. Chickenpox D. Tetanus
C.
According to OSHA’s bloodborne pathogens standard, if a dental office staff person who is susceptible to hepatitis B refuses the offer to be vaccinated against hepatitis B, what must happen?
A. The staff person must see a physician B. The staff person must not be hired/must be fired C. The staff person must sign a vaccine declination form D. The staff person can work in the office but can only work with children under 12
A.
Which of the following symptoms are prominent with influenza but rare or slight with the common cold?
A. Headaches and body aches B. Sore throat and sneezing C. Stuffy nose and sore throat D. Slow onset and low fever
D
What types of viral strains are in the influenza vaccine?
A. Three type Bs B. Three type As C. One type A and one type B D. Two type As and one type B
C.
The Tdap vaccine is designed to prevent diphtheria, pertussis, and:
A. Tuberculosis B. Typhoid C. Tetanus D. Typhus
C.
A vaccine is not available for:
A. Rubella B. Chickenpox C. Some human herpesviruses D. Hepatitis B
B.
Why should healthcare workers get tested for hepatitis B antibodies after receiving the three shots of hepatitis B vaccine?
A. To see if they are also HIV+ B. To see if they've become immune to Hepatitis B C. To see if they're allergic to the vaccine D. To see if they need the Hep A vaccine
B.
The vaccine against _____________ consists of an inactivated toxin.
A. Hepatitis B B. Tetanus C. Measles D. Mumps
D.
Which of the following diseases is not on the CDC’s list of vaccine preventable diseases?
A. Hepatitis B B. Measles C. Influenza D. Tuberculosis
D
What is the CDC’s recommendation for hepatitis B vaccinations of infants?
A. Vaccination of only the females B. No vaccination until age 3 C. Vaccination of only premature infants D. Vaccination of all infants at birth
D
A dental assistant was an asymptomatic carrier of hepatitis B. What happens when she receives the hepatitis B vaccination series?
A. She'll develop symptoms of Hepatitis B B. The carrier state will be eliminated C. She'll become immune to Hepatitis B D. The vaccine will not work and she'll remain a carrier
B
The CDC estimates that what will prevent more than 21 million hospitalizations and 732,000 deaths among children born in the last 20 years?
A. Increased use of prophylactic antibiotics B. Vaccinations C. High protein diets D. Infection control
T
T or F: A vaccine is available in the US against pneumococcal pneumonia.
F
T or F: A vaccine is available in the US against human immunodeficiency virus disease.
F
T or F: After persons have received the hepatitis B vaccination series, they must be given a booster shot every 5 years to maintain their immunity.
A
What year were microbes first observed?
A. 1667 B. 1880 C. 1956 D. 1975
C
Choose the microbial killing method referred to as pasteurization.
A. 121C for 20 minutes B. 212F for 5 minutes C. 63C for 30 minutes D. 37C for 10 minutes
D
What microbes are used to make vinegar, vitamins, drain cleaners, enzymes, and other products?
A. Fungi B. Viruses C. Protozoa D. Bacteria
C
When was the "Golden Age of Microbiology"?
A. Mid to late 1600s B. Mid to late 1700s C. Mid to late 1800s D. Mid to late 1900s
A
Which microbes are used to make pickles out of cucumbers?
A. Bacteria or fungi B. Fungi or viruses C. Viruses or yeasts D. Bacteria of viruses
T
T or F: The disease of small pox was involved in the discovery of immunizations in the 1790s by Edward Jenner.
D
Who is reported to have first observed microbes?
A. Pasteur B. Oliver Wendell Holmes C. Lister D. Leeuwenhoek
B
Select an environment in which viruses can multiply.
A. Only in the absence of nutrients B. Only when they are inside of living cells C. Only when they are outside of living cells D. Only when the temperature is below 7 degrees Celsius
C.
Which of the following microbes is a yeast?
A. Streptococcus mutans B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Candida albicans D. Staphylococcus aureus
B
Which of the following microbes is a type of fungus?
A. Influenza B. Candida albicans C. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Streptococcus mutans
B
A yeast is what type of microorganism?
A. Bacterium B. Fungus C. Virus D. Protozoan
A
Thrush is caused by:
A. Candida albicans B. Streptococcus mutans C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Human herpesvirus 1
B
Bacilli are shaped like:
A. Spheres B. Cylinders or rods C. Curved or spiral forms D. Flat disks
A
Cocci are shaped like ____________.
A. Spheres B. Cylinders or rods C. Curved or spiral forms D. Flat disks
C
Choose the bacterial structure that controls the flow of nutrients and waste into and out of the cell?
A. Cell wall B. Flagellum C. Cytoplasmic membrane D. Capsule
D
Which of the following bacterial structures interferes with phagocytosis?
A. Cell Wall B. Flagellum C. Cytoplasmic membrane D. Capsule
D
Which of the following bacterial structures helps the cell to attach to surfaces?
A. Cell wall B. Capsule C. Cytoplasmic membrane D. Fimbriae
B
The main function of the bacterial cell wall is to:
A. Protect against drying B. Protect against crushing C. To control the exit of wastes from the cell D. Provide the cell with locomotion
C
The main function of bacterial fimbriae is to:
A. Control the exit of wastes from the cell B. Protect against crushing C. Allow the cell to attach to surfaces D. Protect against drying
D
Choose an environment in which psychrophilic bacteria grow best.
A. In the human body B. In hot water heaters C. Anywhere the temperature is 37 degrees Celsius D. In the refrigerator
A
Which of the following groups of bacteria grow best inside your refrigerator?
A. Psychrophilic B. Thermophiles C. Mesophils D. Acidophils
D
How would prevent the growth of an obligate anaerobe?
A. Adjust the pH of the environment to 7 B. Remove protein of the environment C. Maintain the environmental temperature to 37 degrees Celsius D. Add O2 to the environment
D
Those bacteria that die in the presence of oxygen are called:
A. Aerobes B. Mesophils C. Acidogens D. Anaerobes
A
Acidogenic bacteria are noted for producing large amounts of:
A. Acids B. Vitamins C. Proteins D. Carbohydrates
A
What temperatures are the surest way to kill bacteria (or any other type of microorganisms) in the shortest amount of time?
A. Sterilizing temperatures B. Freezing temperatures C. Fluctuating temperatures D. Refrigerator temperatures
B
Anaerobes are bacteria that:
A. Require oxygen for growth B. Grow only in the absence of oxygen C. Can multiply in the presence or absence of oxygen D. Are killed in the presence or absence of oxygen
D
Agar is a polysaccharide from seaweed that is used to:
A. Kill bacteria B. Grow viruses C. Kill viruses D. Culture bacteria
C
What environmental condition will promote the growth of an aciduric bacterium?
A. Low O2 level B. Low nutrient level C. Low pH D. Low temperature
A
Which type of microbe is the most difficult to kill?
A. Endospores B. Vegetative bacteria C. Viruses D. Chlamydiae
B
Select the best description of a bacterial endospore.
A. A fungus resistant to chemicals B. One of the most resistant forms of life to heat and chemicals C. A virus that infects the root canal D. A bacterium that grows at low temperatures
B
Some bacteria can change into special forms that are dormant and are highly resistant to heat, chemicals, and drying? These are called:
A. Rickettsia B. Endospores C. Mold D. Vegetative cells
C
Chlamydia and Rickettsia are examples of:
A. Viruses B. Fungi C. Bacteria D. Protozoa
D
Which of the following diseases is a bacterial disease?
A. Influenza B. Hepatitis B C. Mumps D. Dental caries
D
What is the result of a virus invading a host cell?
A. There is no effect on the cell B. The virus always dies C. The host cell always dies D. The host cell may die or be changed
C
Viruses cause diseases in humans because they:
A. Produce exotoxins B. Produce endotoxins C. Invade and kill or damage cells in our body D. "Swim" away from phagocytes using their flagella
D
During the life cycle of a virus, what is the next step after the virus attaches to the host cell?
A. Uncoating B. Release C. Replication D. Enters the cell
B
The genes of a virus are in the:
A. Capsid B. Nucleic acid core C. Envelope D. Capsid and envelope
B
What is the final product from the bacterial fermentation of sugar (e.g., glucose)?
A. Nucleic acid B. Lactic acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Pyruvic acid
D
Which of the following substances is a component of some bacterial outer membranes and when released in the human body contributes to the causes of periodontal disease?
A. Lysozyme B. Mesosome C. Capsid D. Endotoxin
A
Agents that prevent bacterial growth without killing them are referred to as:
A. Bacteriostatic agents B. Sterilant agents C. Disinfectant agents D. Nucleic acid agents
B
Colony-forming-units (CFU) are defined as:
A. measurements of the diameter of colonies that develop on an agar medium. B. individual bacterial cells or a small group of cells each of which can form a colony on agar media. C. units used to estimate the distance a bacterial cell can move away from its colony on agar media. D. highly resistant forms of certain bacteria.
C
How are bacterial spores important in dental infection control?
A. They cause periodontal disease. B. They are used to monitor surface disinfection. C. They are used to test the functioning and use of sterilizers. D. They cause thrush.
D
Which of the following bacteria are important in metabolizing sugar to acids that cause dental caries?
A. Geobacillus stearothermophilus B. Bacillus atrophaeus C. Clostridium sporogenes D. Streptococcus mutans
A
Which of the following represents the pH values of acid?
A. 0 to 7 B. 7 to 14 C. 8 to 10 D. 10 to 12
T
T or F: Bacteria are larger than viruses
T
T or F: Bacterial growth is defined as an increase in cell numbers
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