A&PII FINAL EXAM

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883 Terms

1
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What is the second step in the mechanism of action of a lipid soluble hormone?

the complex can act on DNA, and cause protein production

2
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What are the three functions of the blood?

Protection, transportation, and regulation

3
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What 4 components does the blood transport?

nutrients, hormones, wastes, and gases (o2/co2)

4
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What does protection include when concerning the blood?

The inclusion of WBC's and platelets

5
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What three things does the blood regulate?

pH, osmolarity of tissues, temperature regulation

6
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What are the two main components of blood?

plasma and formed elements

7
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Plasma is the _____ part of blood

fluid

8
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Plasma comprises what percent of blood volume?

55%

9
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What important macromolecule is present in plasma?

Proteins

10
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Albumin in the plasma contributes to what important characteristic of blood?

Blood's thickness

11
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The formed elements are comprised of what?

cells suspended in plasma

12
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Formed elements make up what % of blood volume?

45%

13
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Where do all formed elements originate?

Red bone marrow

14
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Which specific bones have red bone marrow?

the sternum, coxals, and ribs

15
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RBC's have what specific shape?

biconcave disc

16
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RBC's have such a short lifespan because:

they have no nucleus or organelles

17
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The RBC's main purpose is to:

transport O2, CO2, and H+

18
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WBC's main purpose is to:

defend the body against foreign agents and microorganisms

19
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Platelets are comprised of:

small cell fragments

20
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The platelet's main purpose is to:

form clots, in order to plug vessel walls to stop bleeding

21
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RBC production is also known as what?

Erythropoiesis

22
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Where does erythropoiesis occur?

red bone marrow

23
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When is erythropoiesis stimulated?

-Decreased O2, detected by kidneys (hypoxia)

24
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When the kidneys detect hypoxia, they increase the production of:

EPO

25
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EPO targets ________ to ________

the red bone marrow, produce more RBC's to compensate

26
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Erythropoiesis occurs in what kind of loop?

negative feedback loop

27
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Pernicious anemia:

caused by low RBC ct due to lack of b12

28
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Iron deficiency anemia:

lacl of iron in hemoglobin leads to low O2 transport to tissues. Low O2= Low ATP

29
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Sickle cell anemia:

abnormal Hb due to incorrect amino acid sequence

30
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what are some effects of sickle cell anemia?

clogged capillaries, hemolysis, anemia

31
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define polycythemia

RBM overproduces RBC's

32
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what are some effects of polycythemia?

Increased viscosity slows blood flow and ultimately decreases venous return

33
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What demographic is polycythemia more common in?

men due to production of testosterone

34
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Define leucopenia

abnormally low WBC count

35
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What condition is leucopenia often seen in?

AIDS

36
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Define leukocytosis

Abnormally high WBC count

37
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When does leukocytosis normally occur?

During time of acute infection

38
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Define leukemia

dramatic increase in WBC's

39
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What is unique about the secondary cells produced in leukemia?

They are malignant (cancerous) cells, and do not function properly

40
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What is the function of neutrophils/monocytes?

phagocytize microbes

41
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What are the two functions of eosinophils?

phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes, and allergen response

42
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What are the two functions of basophils?

Basophils are responsible for the symptoms during an allergic reaction (heparin and histamine secretion), and also serves as an anticoagulant

43
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What is the main function of the B-lymphocyte?

produces antibodies that attach to antigens on foreign microbes

44
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What are the two functions of T-lymphocytes?

directly attacks foreign microbes (killer t-cell), or can act as a B-lymphocyte

45
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How is a B-lymphocyte activated?

When a foreign antigen binds to it's receptor

46
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After the binding of the foreign antigen, what does the B-cell do?

produce plasma cells, which manufacture antibodies specific to the antigen

47
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What is unique about the B-lymphocyte response?

Some B-lymphocytes will remain as memory cells, which can respond quickly in the event of an attack by the specific antigen.

48
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What is the primary exposure in vaccination?

The first exposure to an antigen, which contain weakened/dead cell fragments.

49
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Primary exposure triggers what in the B-lymphocytes?

the antigen-antibody response

50
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What is the secondary exposure concerning vaccination?

Any exposure to the same antigen as in the vaccine will be fought off quicker than if no vaccination was administered.

51
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What are the three steps in repairing a damaged blood vessel?

Vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation

52
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What happens in the vascular spasm?

smooth muscle contracts, causing vasoconstriction, and platelets release factors to decrease blood loss.

53
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How does the platelet plug form?

Platelets are activated when they adhere to the damaged blood vessel. They release chemicals, like thromboxane A2, which aggregates other platelets to form a "plug".

54
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How does coagulation work?

Coagulation is the formation of a "fibrin mesh" that holds the platelet plug in place.

55
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The platelet plug activates which chemical?

Prothrombinase

56
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Prothrombin + ________________ creates thrombin.

prothrombinase , Ca2+

57
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Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin with the help of what chemical?

thrombin

58
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What dissolves the clot when the damage has been repaired?

Plasmin

59
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How does EDTA work?

binds to Ca2+, inhibiting proper clotting

60
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How does heparin work?

Prevents thrombin formation, which in turn doesn't form fibrin

61
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How does coumadin work?

Blocks activity of vitamin K, which is needed to synthesize clotting factors

62
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How does aspirin work?

Prevents initial platelet aggregation

63
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What is a thrombus?

A clot that stays in one location (thrombosis)

64
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What is an embolus?

A clot that breaks off and travels through circulation (embolism)

65
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Rh- types can receive/donate to what types?

give: -/+

receive: -

66
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Rh+ types can receive/donate to what types?

give: +

receive: -/+

67
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How can HDN be prevented?

administration of RhoGAM

68
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Define ischemia:

A condition where there is reduced blood flow (reduced O2) to a specific part of the body

69
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What is a myocardial infarction?

Where the presence of dead cardiac muscle tissue leads to heart attack

70
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What is angina pectoris?

chest pain, often associated with reduced blood flow to heart (MI)

71
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What is atherosclerosis?

a buildup of fats/cholesterol on artery walls

72
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What is a stent?

an expandable mesh inserted into a blocked blood vessel to keep it open and regain blood flow

73
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What does the conduction system of the heart allow?

For the heart to beat on it's own, in a coordinated, rhythmic matter

74
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What is the purpose of intercalated discs?

They join cardiac muscles of the heart together, which allow conduction to be spread throughout the heart

75
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What is the SA node known as?

The "pacemaker" of the heart

76
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When the SA node fires, what impact does it have on the atria?

It causes the atria to contract

77
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The SA node establishes what?

The baseline of heart rate (60-100bpm)

78
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The SA node has what impact on Na+?

Spontaneously depolarizes Na+ (starts heartbeat)

79
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Where is the AV node located?

In the interatrial septum

80
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The AV node does what to the propagation of the electrical current?

Delays the current briefly

81
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The AV node delay allows for what?

Allows for the atria to finish systole (contraction)

82
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The AV bundle (Bundle of His) is located where?

In the interventricular septum

83
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The AV bundle acts as a pathway for the electrical impulse to travel from ____________________________.

the atria to the ventricles

84
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The AV bundle divides into branches. Why is this significant?

It allows the electrical impulse to be carried to the left/right side of the heart, to the respective ventricles

85
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the Purkinje fibers are located where?

They're spread throughout the walls of the ventricles

86
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The Purkinje fibers deliver impulse to the _______.

Cardiac cells

87
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The Purkinje fibers delivering impulses to cardiac cells causes what to happen?

Ventricular systole (contraction)

88
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Name the pathway of the heart's electrical current start to finish.

SA node --> AV node --> AV bundle --> Purkinje fibers ---> cardiac cells

89
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What is the first phase of cardiac muscle tissue contraction?

Depolarization

90
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Depolarization of cardiac membrane potential causes what electrical shift?

Cardiac cells inside the MP become more positive compared to cells outside the MP

91
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What is the RMP of cardiac muscle fibers?

~-90mV

92
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How is the RMP of cardiac muscle fibers brought to threshold?

By neighboring cells (due to intercalated discs)

93
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What is the second phase of cardiac muscle tissue contraction?

the plateau phase

94
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The plateau phase includes what being maintained?

depolarization

95
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Why is the plateau phase significant?

it ensures contraction finishes before relaxation happens (no tetany!)

96
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Explain the chemistry behind the plateau phase.

VG Ca++ channels slowly open to prolong depolarization, and some K+ channels now open

97
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What is the third phase in cardiac muscle tissue contraction?

Repolarization

98
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What is the charge of the cardiac cell MP, comparatively?

It's when the cardiac cell MP goes negatively compared to the MP outside of the cell.

99
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The repolarization phase is characterized by what chemical change?

The opening of VG K+ channels, allowing K+ to exit the cell. Ca++ channels also close.

100
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The P wave in an ECG defines ___________.

Atrial depolarization/contraction