ATPL (Philippines) - Aircraft General Knowledge 4

125. Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases?

A. Angle of attack.

B. Altitude.

C. Airspeed.

C. Airspeed.

126. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight?

A. Increase speed for a headwind.

B. Increase speed for a tailwind.

C. Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind.

A. Increase speed for a headwind.

127. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur?

A. A speed less than that for L/DMAX.

B. A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.

C. A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.

C. A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.

128. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces?

A. Increasing speed or altitude.

B. Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.

C. Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.

B. Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.

129. What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade?

A. It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.

B. It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight.

C. It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.

A. It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.

130. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM produce the most severe wear, fatigue, and damage to high performance reciprocating engines?

A. High RPM and low MAP.

B. Low RPM and high MAP.

C. High RPM and high MAP.

A. High RPM and low MAP.

131. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines?

A. Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.

B. Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.

C. Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.

B. Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.

132. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine?

A. The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.

B. Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.

C. The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.

A. The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.

133. What is controlled by the waste gate of a turbocharged-reciprocating engine?

A. Supercharger gear ratio.

B. Exhaust gas discharge.

C. Throttle opening.

B. Exhaust gas discharge.

134. Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin-engine airplane?

A. With one engine inoperative.

B. With climb power on.

C. With full flaps and gear extended.

A. With one engine inoperative.

135. What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent?

A. Maximum single-engine rate of climb.

B. Maximum single-engine angle of climb.

C. Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.

A. Maximum single-engine rate of climb.

136. What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at VMC?

A. Heading.

B. Heading and altitude.

C. Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft./min.

A. Heading.

137. What effect, if any, does altitude have on VMC for an airplane with unsupercharged engines?

A. None.

B. Increases with altitude.

C. Decreases with altitude.

C. Decreases with altitude.

138. Under what condition is VMC the highest?

A. Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value.

B. CG is at the most rearward allowable position.

C. CG is at the most forward allowable position.

B. CG is at the most rearward allowable position.

139. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails?

A. Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent.

B. Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more.

C. Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.

B. Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more.

140. What criteria determines which engine is the "critical" engine of a twin-engine airplane?

A. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage.

B. The one designated by the manufacturer because it develops most usable thrust.

C. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuselage.

A. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage.

141. In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?

A. When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude of over 60°.

B. While maneuvering at minimum controllable airspeed or less to avoid overbanking.

C. When operating at any airspeed of VMC or greater with only enough deflection to zero the side slip.

C. When operating at any airspeed of VMC or greater with only enough deflection to zero the side slip.

142. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?

A. Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.

B. Low gross weight.

C. High density altitude.

A. Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.

143. What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light, twin-engine airplane? Accelerate to

A. Best engine-out, rate-of-climb airspeed while on the ground, then lift off and climb at that speed.

B. VMC, then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum angle-of-climb airspeed.

C. An airspeed slightly above VMC, then lift off and climb at the best rate-of-climb airspeed.

C. An airspeed slightly above VMC, then lift off and climb at the best rate-of-climb airspeed.

144. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained?

A. VMC.

B. VYSE.

C. VXSE.

B. VYSE.

145. What procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landing?

A. The flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing.

B. The altitude and airspeed should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach.

C. A normal approach, except do not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshold.

A. The flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing.

146. How does VNE change with altitude?

A. Stays the same.

B. VNE increases with increasing altitude.

C. VNE decreases with increasing altitude.

C. VNE decreases with increasing altitude.

147. Which part(s) in the turbojet engine is subjected to the high temperatures and severe centrifugal forces?

A. Turbine wheel(s).

B. Turbine vanes.

C. Compressor rotor(s) or impeller(s).

A. Turbine wheel(s).

148. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?

A. Compressor discharge.

B. Fuel spray nozzles.

C. Turbine inlet.

C. Turbine inlet.

149. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance?

A. As air density decreases, thrust increases.

B. As temperature increases, thrust increases.

C. As temperature increases, thrust decreases.

C. As temperature increases, thrust decreases.

150. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?

A. Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density.

B. Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher.

C. Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air.

A. Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density.

151. As outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will

A. increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air.

B. remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure.

C. decrease due to higher density altitude.

C. decrease due to higher density altitude.

152. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is

A. limiting compressor speed.

B. limiting exhaust gas temperature.

C. limiting torque.

B. limiting exhaust gas temperature.

153. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of

A. turbine inlet temperature.

B. shaft horsepower and jet thrust.

C. propeller thrust only.

B. shaft horsepower and jet thrust.

154. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine?

A. Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power.

B. Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust.

C. Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease.

A. Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power.

155. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range?

A. 10,000 feet to 25,000 feet.

B. 25,000 feet to the tropopause.

C. The tropopause to 45,000 feet.

B. 25,000 feet to the tropopause.

156. What characterizes a transient compressor stall?

A. Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.

B. Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine.

C. Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place.

C. Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place.

157. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady?

A. Strong vibrations and loud roar.

B. Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal.

C. Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.

A. Strong vibrations and loud roar.

158. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?

A. Intermittent "backfire" stall.

B. Transient "backfire" stall.

C. Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.

C. Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.

159. What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall?

A. Reduce the throttle and then rapidly advance the throttle to decrease the angle of attack on the compressor blades, creating more airflow.

B. Reduce the throttle and then slowly advance the throttle again and decrease the aircraft's angle of attack.

C. Advance the throttle slowly to increase airflow and decrease the angle of attack on one or more compressor blades.

B. Reduce the throttle and then slowly advance the throttle again and decrease the aircraft's angle of attack.

160. What limits turbine engines from developing compressor stalls?

A. Deice valves-fuel heat.

B. Compressor bleed valves.

C. TKS system.

B. Compressor bleed valves.

161. At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur?

A. Below .75 Mach.

B. From .75 to 1.20 Mach.

C. From 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.

A. Below .75 Mach.

162. Within what Mach range does transonic flight regimes usually occur?

A. 0.50 to 0.75 Mach.

B. 0.75 to 1.20 Mach.

C. 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.

B. 0.75 to 1.20 Mach.

163. What is the free stream Mach number which produces first evidence of local sonic flow?

A. Supersonic Mach number.

B. Transonic Mach number.

C. Critical Mach number.

C. Critical Mach number.

164. What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing?

A. Initial buffet speed.

B. Critical Mach number.

C. Transonic index.

B. Critical Mach number.

165. What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft?

A. A high-speed stall and sudden pitchup.

B. A severe moment or "Mach tuck."

C. Severe porpoising.

B. A severe moment or "Mach tuck."

166. What is the movement of the center of pressure when the wingtips of a sweptwing airplane are shock-stalled first?

A. Inward and aft.

B. Inward and forward.

C. Outward and forward.

B. Inward and forward.

167. What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straightwing design?

A. The critical Mach number will increase significantly.

B. Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility.

C. Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.

A. The critical Mach number will increase significantly.

168. What is one disadvantage of a sweptwing design?

A. The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section.

B. The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.

C. Severe pitchdown moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.

B. The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.

169. What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other?

A. Porpoise.

B. Wingover.

C. Dutch roll.

C. Dutch roll.