CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Core 1 Study Guide Introduction

Flashcards for the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Core 1 Study Guide, covering an introduction to certification, purpose, target audience, exam structure, flashcard generation, and basic computer concepts.

What is the purpose of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) certification?

It is an entry-level certification for technical professionals configuring, operating, and troubleshooting various devices and technologies, including desktops, laptops, tablets, mobile devices, wearables, IoT devices, networking equipment, virtualization, and cloud computing.

What skills does the CompTIA A+ Core 1 certification validate?

It validates entry-level competency in IT support roles, demonstrates problem-solving skills, and the ability to perform critical IT operations, providing foundational knowledge for hybrid and remote workforce support.

Who is the target audience for the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Core 1 certification?

Individuals seeking their first IT support position, with no prior experience or background in IT required.

What are the five domains of knowledge covered in the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Core 1 exam?

Mobile devices, Networking, Hardware, Virtualization and cloud computing, and Troubleshooting.

What is the exam structure for the CompTIA A+ certification?

It requires passing two exams: Core 1 (220-1201) and Core 2 (220-1202). Core 1 focuses on foundational technical knowledge, and certification versions are updated approximately every three years.

How is the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Core 1 exam organized in terms of objectives?

It contains five domains and 27 objectives, which are grouped logically for learning but not presented linearly.

What percentage of the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam is dedicated to Mobile Devices?

13% of the exam questions focus on laptops, smartphones, tablets, wearables, and application support.

What percentage of the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam is dedicated to Networking?

23% of the exam questions cover network types, connections, configurations, TCP/IP, Wi-Fi, and small office/home office equipment.

What percentage of the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam is dedicated to Hardware?

25% of the exam questions focus on identifying, using, and connecting hardware components like motherboards, processors, memory, storage, and expansion cards.

What percentage of the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam is dedicated to Virtualization and Cloud Computing?

11% of the exam questions cover cloud computing deployment models, delivery models, and virtualization concepts.

What percentage of the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam is dedicated to Hardware and Network Troubleshooting?

28% of the exam questions require applying troubleshooting methodologies and knowledge from other domains.

What is the format and structure of the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam?

It includes up to 90 questions, comprising multiple-choice, multiple-select, and performance-based questions (PBQs). Most exams include 3–5 PBQs and 80–85 multiple-choice questions.

What is the passing score for the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam?

The passing score is 675 out of 900 (scaled score).

How much time is allotted to complete the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam?

90 minutes are allotted. PBQs appear as the first questions and may take longer to answer, while multiple-choice questions generally take about 30 seconds each.

What is the cost of a CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam voucher?

Each voucher costs between $250–$275, varying by location. Discounted vouchers are available, and they expire 11 months after purchase.

What is the focus of the CompTIA A+ certification exam?

The exam focuses on recognizing terms, definitions, and concepts rather than memorizing or reciting them. Questions are multiple-choice or multiple-selection style.

What are 'distractors' or 'red herrings' in CompTIA exam questions?

Each question often includes at least one incorrect option designed to distract. Eliminating these distractors improves the chances of selecting the correct answer.

Why are keywords like 'MOST' or 'LEAST' important in CompTIA exam questions?

These bolded, italicized, or uppercase words are critical to understanding and answering the question correctly.

How should one answer CompTIA A+ exam questions when workplace practices differ from CompTIA standards?

One should answer questions based on CompTIA-approved terminology and processes, as workplace practices may differ from these standards.

What is a computer?

A device performing input, processing, storage, and output, examples include desktops, laptops, tablets, smartphones, and IoT devices.

What are the basic functions of a computer?

Input (data entered), Processing (operations by CPU), Storage (data retention), and Output (display or delivery of results).

What are 'workstations' in the context of computer categories?

Desktop PCs with tower cases or all-in-one designs used for general computing tasks.

What are 'servers' in the context of computer categories?

Rack-mounted systems hosting services like file sharing or websites, designed for continuous operation and high performance.

What are 'laptops' and 'tablets' as categories of computers?

Laptops are portable computers running desktop operating systems with battery power, while tablets are touchscreen devices running Android or iOS without the need for peripherals.

What are 'smart devices' and 'IoT devices' as categories of computers?

Smart devices are single-function items like smart speakers or displays, and IoT devices are network-connected devices like smart refrigerators or light bulbs.

What are the essential components of computers?

Hardware (input, processing, storage, output devices), Software (operating systems, application software), and Firmware (software embedded in hardware).

What is 'firmware' in a computer system?

Software embedded in hardware (e.g., 'software on a chip') that controls hardware functions and is updated via flashing.

What are the four main areas of safety procedures in IT?

Personal Safety (prevents injuries to technicians), Component Safety (protects computer components), Electrical Safety (prevents electrocution and protects equipment), and Chemical Safety (safe handling and disposal of hazardous materials).

What are 'trip hazards' in personal safety and how can they be mitigated in an IT environment?

Cables across walkways create tripping dangers. They can be mitigated by routing cables through drop ceilings, under raised floors, or using cable runways, and keeping equipment out of pathways.

What are proper lifting techniques for heavy or bulky items in IT operations?

Lift with legs, not the back, by bending knees. Use a push cart or seek assistance for items over 40-50 pounds.

What is Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) and how is it prevented in IT?

ESD is damage caused by the transfer of electrons from a statically charged body to an uncharged component. It's prevented by using antistatic bags for storage and ESD wrist straps and mats for safe discharge.

What are key electrical safety procedures when working with computer equipment?

Unplug equipment before working inside the case, ensure proper grounding, and use surge protectors to guard against voltage spikes.

What are examples of hazardous materials in IT and how are they handled safely?

Lithium batteries, toner, lead, mercury, and arsenic. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) provide details on ingredients, health risks, precautions, and first aid, and protective gear should be used.

What is the purpose of troubleshooting in IT operations?

To identify the root cause of issues or find workarounds to restore functionality, following a systematic and repeatable process.

What is the CompTIA Six-Step Troubleshooting Methodology?

Step 1: Identify the Problem, Step 2: Establish a Theory of Probable Cause, Step 3: Test the Theory to Determine the Cause, Step 4: Establish a Plan of Action to Resolve the Problem and Implement the Solution, Step 5: Verify Full System Functionality and Implement Preventative Measures, Step 6: Document Findings, Actions, and Outcomes.

What should be done in 'Step 1: Identify the Problem' of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Gather information from the user, identify user changes, perform backups before making changes, and determine environmental or infrastructure changes.

What should be done in 'Step 2: Establish a Theory of Probable Cause' of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Question the obvious and research symptoms through resources like search engines or AI chatbots.

What should be done in 'Step 3: Test the Theory to Determine the Cause' of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Confirm or disprove the theory by testing. Reestablish a theory or escalate the issue if the theory is not confirmed.

What should be done in 'Step 4: Establish a Plan of Action to Resolve the Problem and Implement the Solution' of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Create a plan to address the identified issue, following manufacturer or vendor instructions when applicable.

What should be done in 'Step 5: Verify Full System Functionality and Implement Preventative Measures' of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Test the system to ensure the issue is resolved and apply preventative measures to avoid future occurrences.

What should be done in 'Step 6: Document Findings, Actions, and Outcomes' of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Record the problem, solution, and results in the appropriate system.

What are the common components of a custom-built PC?

Motherboard, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Memory (RAM), Storage Devices, Cooling Fans, and Power Supply Unit (PSU).

What is the motherboard in a custom build?

The central circuit board connecting all components.

What is the CPU in a custom build?

The primary processing unit for executing instructions.

What is the Memory (RAM) in a custom build?

Temporary storage for active processes and tasks.

What role does the Power Supply Unit (PSU) play in a custom PC build?

It supplies power to all components.

What is USB (Universal Serial Bus)?

A widely used interface standard that connects various devices, providing both data transfer and power delivery capabilities while supporting multiple devices via daisy-chaining.

What were 'serial connections' (predecessor to USB) and their limitations?

Serial cables used DB9 and DB25 connectors, transmitted data slowly (up to 115 Kbps), and were limited to one device per port, primarily used for older mice, keyboards, and external modems.

What are the advantages of USB over traditional serial connections?

USB allows up to 127 devices via daisy-chaining (vs. one), offers much faster data transfer speeds, and provides power delivery to devices directly through the cable.

What are the data transfer speeds for different USB versions?

USB 1.0 (1.5 Mbps), USB 1.1 (12 Mbps), USB 2.0 (480 Mbps), USB 3.0 (5 Gbps), USB 3.1 Gen 2 (10 Gbps), USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 (20 Gbps), and USB 4.0 (40 Gbps).

What are the maximum cable length limitations for different USB versions?

USB 1.0 (3 meters/9 feet), USB 1.1 and USB 2.0 (5 meters/15 feet), and USB 3.0 and later (3 meters/9 feet) to maintain high-speed performance.

What are the maximum power outputs for different USB versions?

USB 1.0 and USB 2.0 (500 mA / 0.5A), USB 3.0 (900 mA / 0.9A or 4.5 watts), and dedicated Powered USB ports (up to 1.5A / 7.5 watts).

What is USB Type A connector?

A flat rectangular connector used in USB 1.0, 1.1, 2.0, 3.0, and above, connecting only in one direction and commonly found on desktops and laptops.

What are the three variations of USB Type B connectors?

Type B (square with rounded corners for larger devices), Type B Mini (trapezoid shape for early tablets/smartphones), and Type B Micro (shorter, skinnier for wearables/small music players).

What is USB Type C connector?

A small oval-shaped connector compatible with USB 3 and USB 4, with a reversible design allowing insertion in either direction, commonly used in modern laptops, tablets, and smartphones.

What are 'video cables' used for?

They are used to connect devices such as computers, gaming consoles, and media players to displays, including TVs and monitors.

What is HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface)?

The most widely used video interface, supporting high-definition video and audio signals, found in TVs, gaming consoles, Blu-ray players, laptops, and desktop computers.

What are the common connector types for HDMI?

Type A (standard full-size), Type C (Mini HDMI for compact devices), and Type D (Micro HDMI for portable devices).

What is DisplayPort (DP)?

An open-standard video interface developed by VESA to compete with HDMI, offering high-speed video and audio transmission, commonly used for PC monitors and high-end gaming.

What are the connector types for DisplayPort?

Full-size DisplayPort (includes a locking mechanism) and Mini DisplayPort (MiniDP/mDP) for compact devices.

What is DVI (Digital Visual Interface)?

An older standard that supports both analog and digital video signals, commonly used for older monitors and legacy systems.

What are the connector types for DVI?

DVI-A (analog signals only), DVI-D (digital signals only), and DVI-I (both analog and digital signals).

What is VGA (Video Graphics Array)?

An analog video connection standard, widely used before digital connections became dominant, with a 15-pin D-sub connector and limitations to 640x480 resolution and susceptibility to signal degradation.

What is Thunderbolt?

A high-speed interface developed by Intel and Apple that supports video, data, and power over a single connection, commonly used in high-performance laptops and workstations.

What are the connector types for different Thunderbolt versions?

Thunderbolt 1 and 2 use Mini DisplayPort connectors, while Thunderbolt 3 and 4 use USB Type-C connectors, offering speeds up to 40 Gbps.

What is the purpose of 'storage cables'?

They are used to connect storage devices such as hard drives, solid-state drives (SSDs), and optical drives to computers, enabling data transfer between the device and system.

What are the features of Thunderbolt as a storage cable?

High-speed connection interface supporting data, video, and power transfer, with speeds up to 40 Gbps. Versions 1 and 2 use DisplayPort, while 3 and 4 use USB-C, with short cable length limitations.

What is Lightning cable?

A proprietary cable designed by Apple for mobile devices (iPhones, iPads, accessories), with a reversible Lightning connector on one end and USB Type-A or USB-C on the other, exclusive to Apple devices.

What is SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment)?

A standard internal storage connection used in desktops and laptops, with a 7-pin L-shaped SATA Data Cable and a 15-pin SATA Power Cable, offering speeds up to 6 Gbps (SATA III).

What is eSATA (External SATA)?

An external version of SATA for connecting external drives, offering speeds up to 6 Gbps (SATA III), faster than older USB 2.0 but less common now due to advances in USB.

What is SCSI (Small Computer Systems Interface)?

A legacy storage interface for connecting multiple devices, with versions like Narrow SCSI (up to 7 devices, 40 Mbps) and Wide SCSI (up to 15 devices, 320 Mbps), commonly used in older enterprise systems.

What is SAS (Serial Attached SCSI)?

A modern enterprise-grade storage connection used in high-performance environments, offering speeds up to 24 Gbps, supporting full-duplex communication and backward compatibility with SATA drives, common in enterprise data centers.

What does the 'form factor' of a motherboard describe?

It describes the shape, layout, and type of case and power supply compatible with a motherboard, determining the number and type of components that can be installed.

What are the key attributes of the ATX (Advanced Technology eXtended) motherboard form factor?

Size: 12 x 9.6 inches (304 x 244 mm). Features: Full-size for large towers, expansion slots parallel to the shorter side, rear port cluster for integrated audio, video, networking. Use Case: Larger systems with ample expansion space.

What are the key attributes of the microATX (mATX) motherboard form factor?

Size: 9.6 x 9.6 inches (244 x 244 mm). Features: Smaller square board, fewer expansion slots (up to four), rear port cluster. Use Case: Compact computers needing reduced space but retaining core features.

What are the key attributes of the Mini-ITX motherboard form factor?

Size: 6.7 x 6.7 inches (170 x 170 mm). Features: One expansion slot, rear port cluster, compatible with ATX cases using standard mounting holes. Use Case: Small form factor PCs and compact systems.

What is a CPU (Central Processing Unit)?

Also referred to as the processor, it executes program code in software or firmware and performs basic operations for instructions.

What are the three main types of processor architectures?

x86, x64, and ARM.

What are the characteristics of x86 architecture?

Also known as IA-32 or Intel architecture 32-bit instruction set, it supports up to 4GB of RAM due to 32-bit addressing and evolved from 8-bit to 32-bit processors.

What are the characteristics of x64 architecture?

It extends x86 to support 64-bit operations, supports more than 4GB of RAM, is backwards compatible with 32-bit programs, and is widely used in modern PC systems.

What are the characteristics of ARM architecture?

Stands for Advanced RISC Machines (Reduced Instruction Set Computer), designed for low-power devices like tablets, smartphones, and smart TVs, providing extended battery life and reduced heat generation, popular in Apple devices (M1, M2 series), Chromebooks, and Android systems.

What is a CPU socket?

A connector on a motherboard that houses the central processing unit (CPU) and facilitates communication between the CPU and other components.

What is the ZIF (Zero Insertion Force) mechanism in CPU sockets?

A mechanism ensuring CPUs can be installed without force, reducing the risk of bending or breaking pins during installation, particularly important for CPUs with hundreds of delicate pins.

What is LGA (Land Grid Array) socket type?

Used by Intel, where pins are on the motherboard and the CPU has corresponding contact points, common in desktops, workstations, and servers using Intel processors.

What is PGA (Pin Grid Array) socket type?

Used by AMD, where pins are on the CPU and the motherboard has corresponding holes, common in desktops, workstations, and servers using AMD processors.

What is 'multithreading' or 'simultaneous multithreading (SMT)' in CPU features?

Threading is a single stream of instructions sent by software to a processor. Multithreading allows multiple instructions to execute simultaneously, reducing task completion time and increasing CPU capability.

What is Symmetric Multiprocessing (SMP) in CPU features?

Utilizes multiple processors on a motherboard, requiring a motherboard with multiple processor sockets and the operating system to support multiple processors, common in workstations and servers.

What is 'multi-core processing' in CPU features?

Combines multiple cores within a single CPU package, appearing as one physical CPU to the motherboard, dividing instructions among cores for execution, eliminating the need for multiple physical CPUs.

What is 'virtualization support' in CPU features?

Enables hardware to emulate multiple virtual computers, supported by Intel’s VT and AMD’s AMD-V technologies, allowing software like VMware to create virtual machines that simulate physical hardware.

What is the role of the 24-pin mainboard power connector on a motherboard?

It supplies power to most components on the motherboard.

What is the role of the 8-pin CPU power connector on a motherboard?

It supplies power specifically to the processor.

What are 'PCIe x1' and 'PCIe x16' slots on a motherboard?

PCIe x1 are smaller slots for networking, fiber cards, etc. PCIe x16 are larger slots for graphics cards, providing power and high-speed data transfer.

What are 'M.2 Connectors' on a motherboard?

Slots for M.2-based SSDs, with variations for standard and high-speed Gen 4 SSDs.

What is the purpose of the CMOS Battery on a motherboard?

It retains BIOS/UEFI settings (e.g., date and time) and should be replaced approximately every three years.

What are 'expansion cards'?

They are components used to add functions or ports not integrated into the motherboard, including graphics cards, capture cards, sound cards, and network interface cards.

What is PCI (Peripheral Component Interconnect)?

An expansion card type introduced in the early 1990s for 32-bit systems, with a maximum data transfer rate of 133 MBps, common for older network, video, audio cards, and modems.

What is PCI-X (PCI Extended)?

An expansion card type designed for 64-bit systems, faster than PCI with bus speeds up to 533 MHz, but backward compatibility with PCI could cause speed downgrades.

What is AGP (Advanced Graphics Port)?

A dedicated port for graphics cards, available in 1x, 2x, 4x, and 8x versions, later replaced by PCIe in modern systems.

What is PCIe (PCI Express)?

An expansion card type that replaced PCI, PCI-X, and AGP, available in x1, x4, x8, and x16 sizes, using point-to-point serial connections for direct access to the motherboard.

What are the common types of expansion cards?

Video Cards (Graphics Cards), Capture Cards, Sound Cards, Network Interface Cards (NICs), and Riser Cards.