A&PII Final

Endocrine glands secrete their products by way of ducts.

False

The anterior pituitary originates from the hypophyseal pouch and gets signals from the hypothalamus through the hypophyseal portal system.

True

Somatostatin will stimulate the release of growth hormones, but GHRH will inhibit its release.

False

The following are all hormones secreted from the anterior pituitary: FSH, LH, ACTH and ADH.

False

Hypersecretion of cortisol leads to Cushing's Syndrome, a disorder that causes problems like edema, hvpertension and muscle weakness.

True

Hypersecretion of thyroid hormone in children and adolescents causes acromegaly, resulting in abnormally long bones.

False

The adrenal cortex is considered a true endocrine gland. On the other hand, the adrenal medulla is a modified portion of the sympathetic nervous system, so we call it "neuroendocrine" tissue.

True

Hydrophilic hormones can be transported inside their target cells, while hydrophobic hormones must bind to receptors on the cell membrane surface in order to activate 2nd messenger pathways.

False

"Hemostasis" means the production of formed elements in the blood.

True

A person develops anti-A antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen A, and anti-B antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen B.

False

Severe lack of protein in the diet can make water move from the bloodstream into the surrounding body tissues, causing tissue swelling. If this occurs in the abdomen it's called "ascites."

True

The thymus can make 7 kinds of formed elements in the blood, while the bone marrow only makes lymphocytes.

False

If iron levels get too high, it can lead jaundice.

False

Leukemia is a cancer that causes an overproduction of immature leukocytes. Treatment includes chemotherapy and bone marrow transplant.

True

Platelets are important in controlling small hemorrhages. In the first phase of this control, platelets release serotonin to vasoconstrict the damaged vessel.

True

Type B individuals can safely donate RBCs to the AB individuals and receive RBCs from type O Donors.

True

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of hormones and effects of those hormones?

a. GnRH from Hypothalamus -> FSH from Anterior Pituitary -> Mammary Glands -> Lactation

b. CRH from Hypothalamus -> ACTH from Anterior Pituitary -> Adrenals -> Release of corticosteroids

c. TRH from Hypothalamus -> Prolactin from Posterior Pituitary -> Ovaries -> Ovulation

d. GHIH from Hypothalamus -> GH from Posterior Pituitary -> growth of muscles and bones

b. CRH from Hypothalamus -> ACTH from Anterior Pituitary -> Adrenals -> Release of corticosteroids

If the posterior pituitary were destroyed, which of the following functions would not be impaired?

a. Increasing water absorption from kidneys

b. Contractions of the uterus during childbirth

c. Milk flow during breastfeeding

d. Development of follicles in the ovaries

d. Development of follicles in the ovaries

Which of the following statements is FALSE about the pancreatic Islets of Langerhans?

a. Glucagon is secreted from alpha cells between meals

Insulin is secreted from beta cells during or just after a meal

C. Glucagon promotes glycogenesis and storage of excess glucose as fat

d. Insulin decreases blood glucose levels e. Glucagon increases blood glucose levels

C. Glucagon promotes glycogenesis and storage of excess glucose as fat

Which of the following describes Type 1 but NOT Type 2 diabetes?

a. Characterized by glycosuria.

b. Characterized by hyperglycemia

c. Beta cells are destroyed in the pancreas

d. Body cells are insulin-resistant

e. Main treatment is diet and exercise

b. Characterized by hyperglycemia

Which one of the following describes polyphagia (one symptom of diabetes)?

a. Extreme thirst

b. Extreme hunger

c. Abnormally high glucose levels in the blood

d. Abnormally high volume of urine production

c. Abnormally high glucose levels in the blood

Where is Aldosterone secreted from?

a. Adrenal medulla

b. Adrenal cortex-zona glomerulosa

c. Adrenal cortex-zona reticularis

d. Pineal gland

e. Posterior Pituitary

b. Adrenal cortex-zona glomerulosa

What is Aldosterone's main effect?

a. Stimulates milk flow during lactation

b. Stimulates follicle development in females; sperm production in males

c. Promotes Ca?+ deposition (therefore ICa?*levels in the blood).

d. Promotes Ca?+ release from bones (therefore *Ca?+ levels in the blood).

e. Increases Na+ absorption on kidneys

e. Increases Na+ absorption on kidneys

Where is melatonin secreted from?

a. Pancreas

b. Parafollicular cells of Thyroid

c. Adrenal cortex-zona reticularis

d. Pineal gland

e. Posterior Pituitary

d. Pineal gland

What is the effect of Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)?

a. Stimulates milk flow during lactation

b. Stimulates follicle development in females sperm production in males

c. Promotes Ca? deposition (therefore ICa?+levels in the blood).

d. Promotes Ca?+ release from bones (therefore Ca?* levels in the blood).

e. Increases Na+ absorption on kidneys

d. Promotes Ca?+ release from bones (therefore Ca?* levels in the blood).

The hormones secreted from the thymus all stimulate development and activity of

a. T cells of the immune system

b. Parafollicular cells of Thyroid

c. Alpha cells of Pancreas

d. Glomerular cells in Adrenal gland

e.Paraventricular cells of Hypothalamus

a. T cells of the immune system

Where are epinephrine, norepinephrine and dopamine secreted from?

a. Adrenal medulla

b. Adrenal cortex-zona glomerulosa

c. Adrenal cortex-zona reticularis

d. Pineal gland

e. Posterior Pituitary

a. Adrenal medulla

What layer of the adrenal cortex primarily secretes the sex hormones involved in developing sexual characteristics and increasing sex drive?

a. Adrenal medulla

b. Adrenal cortex-zona glomerulosa

c. Adrenal cortex-zona reticularis

d. Adrenal cortex- zona fasciculata

c. Adrenal cortex-zona reticularis

What hormone, secreted from the fascicular layer of the adrenal cortex, stimulates protein and fat catabolism, gluconeogenesis, and release of fatty acids and glucose in the blood?

a. Oxytocin

b. ADH

c. Cortisol

d. Growth Hormone

e. Glucagon

c. Cortisol

You have centrifuged a tube of blood. Which of the following CORRECTLY pairs the blood laver with its components?

a. plasma; nutrients, gases and electrolytes

b. buffy coat; albumins that contribute to blood viscosity

c. plasma; thrombocytes

d. buffy coat; globulins for immunity

e. plasma; erythrocytes

a. plasma; nutrients, gases and electrolytes

You travel from Berrien Springs to Denver, Colorado to visit your cousins. Denver is at a higher altitude than Berrien Springs, so the air contains less oxygen. This produces temporary hypoxemia (oxygen deficiency in the blood). Which of the following would you expect to happen as a result?

a. Kidneys and liver will release more erythropoietin (EPO)

b. Hemopoiesis will increase

c. RBC count will increase

d. None of these will likely happe

e. All of these will likely happen

e. All of these will likely happen

Can result if too much erythropoietin is released from the liver and kidneys

a. Thalassemia

b. Anemia

c. Hemophilia

d. Polycythemia

e. Thrombosis

d. Polycythemia

Would be indicated by a lower hematocrit

a. Thalassemia

b. Anemia

c. Hemophilia

d. Polycythemia

e. Thrombosis

b. Anemia

Could be caused by cancer of the erythropoietic cell line in red bone marrow

a. Thalassemia

b. Anemia

c. Hemophilia

d. Polycythemia

e. Thrombosis

d. Polycythemia

The best treatment would be giving the patient something that will ultimately produce fibrin

a. Thalassemia

b. Anemia

c. Hemophilia

d. Polycythemia

e. Thrombosis

c. Hemophilia

Abnormal clotting in an unbroken blood vessel

a. Thalassemia

b. Anemia

c. Hemophilia

d. Polycythemia

e. Thrombosis

e. Thrombosis

The steps of the life cycle of an erythrocyte are

a. Erythrocyte (FU -> erythrocyte -> reticulocyte -> erythroblast

b. Erythrocyte -> erythrocyte FU -> reticulocyte -> ervthroblast

c. Erythrocyte (FU -> erythroblast -> reticulocyte -> erythrocyte

d. Erythrocyte (FU -> erythrocyte -> reticulocyte -> erythroblast

c. Erythrocyte (FU -> erythroblast -> reticulocyte -> erythrocyte

The most common type of leukocyte is a

a. neutrophil

b. eosinophil

c. basophil

d. lymphocyte

e. monocyte

a. neutrophil

Type AB blood has ____ RBC antigens

a. no antigens

b. anti-A and anti-B

c. anti-A

d. anti-B

e. A and B antigens

e. A and B antigens

A person with Type A blood can safely donate RBCs to _____ and receive RBCs of type_____.

a. A; B

b. B; A

c. AB; O

d. O; AB

e. O; O

c. AB; O

In the first century AD, a Roman physician name Aulus Celsus described an endocrine disorder involving the butterfly-shaped endocrine organ (largest in the body) called the

a. thymus

b. thyroid

c. adrenal

d. pineal

e. ovary

b. thyroid

Aulus Celsus explained that this gland could form a large swollen area at the base of the neck that he called a 'bronchocele." The gland is composed of sacs lined with cuboidal epithelial cells called _____ cells.

a. follicular

b. fascicular

c. supraoptic

d. gonadotropic

e. somatotropic

a. follicular

These cells secrete a mixture of 2 chemical compounds that together make a functional hormone. The functions of this hormone do NOT include ___

a. heat production

b. metabolism

c. GH secretion

d. Na+ absorption in kidneys

e. oxygen consumption

d. Na+ absorption in kidneys

The endocrine axis that releases the hormone

starts with ____ a hormone released from the hypothalamus.

a. GnRH

b. TRH

c. TSH

d. GHRH

b. TRH

In the clinical disorder called _______, the body produces antibodies that act like the pituitary hormone to make this endocrine gland grow and release too much hormone. Back in Aulus Celsus' day, the common treatment for this disorder was to cut out the entire gland, or burn it out with acid.

a. myxedema

b. gigantism

c. dwarfism

d. acromegaly

e. goiter

e. goiter

What he didn't understand is that removing the gland would cause their hormone levels to become too low, resulting in a condition called ______ in adults.

a. myxedema

b. gigantism

c. dwarfism

d. acromegaly

e. goiter

a. myxedema

We now treat these enlarged glands by blocking the antibodies or alternatively give the person a radioactive form of ______ (a chemical that is necessary for the production of its hormones).

c. iodine

The heart's natural pacemaker is the

a. sinoatrial node

b. atrioventricular node

c. bundle of His

d. left and right bundle branches

e. purkinje fibers

a. sinoatrial node

If the heart's natural pacemaker fails to fire, then:

a. no blood would enter the atria

b. no blood would enter the ventricles

c. the AV node would act as an ectopic focus

d. the SA node would act as an ectopic focus

e. the person would die within minutes

c. the AV node would act as an ectopic focus

Deoxygenated blood is normally found in the _______; because________.

a. Right side of the heart: because this sends blood to the pulmonary circuit to become re-oxygenated.

b. Left side of the heart: because this sends blood to the systemic circuit to become re-oxygenated.

c. Right side of the heart; because this sends blood to the systemic circuit to become re-oxygenated.

d. Left side of the heart; because this sends blood to the pulmonary circuit to become re-oxygenated.

a. Right side of the heart: because this sends blood to the pulmonary circuit to become re-oxygenated.

To get from the right atrium to the right ventricle, blood flows through

a. the pulmonary valve

b. the tricuspid valve

c. the bicuspid valve

d. the aortic valve

e. the mitral valve

b. the tricuspid valve

The sac around the heart is called the

a. peritoneum

b. pericardium

c. myocardium

d. epicardium

e. pleural sac

b. pericardium

A red blood cell that has entered the heart from the inferior vena cava. Identify the correct sequence of its travel through the chambers of the heart:

a. Right ventricle, left ventricle, left atrium, right atrium

b. Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle

c. Lungs, right ventricle, left ventricle, right atrium, left atrium

d. Left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, right ventricle, right atrium

e. Left atrium, left ventricle, right ventricle, right atrium, lungs

b. Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle

Drugs that increase the heart rate have a ________effect

a. myogenic

b. negative inotropic

c. positive inotropic

d. negative chronotropic

e. positive chronotropic

e. positive chronotropic

Sarah suffers from emphysema, a disorder that causes buildup of scar tissue in the lungs. The scar tissue would increase pressure in the pulmonary trunk, which would _______ afterload.

a. increase

b. decrease

a. increase

It is important for both ventricles to pump out equal volumes of blood with each contraction. What would happen if the right ventricle fails to pump an equal amount of blood (i.e. if there is right ventricular failure)?

a. The blood would back up into the lungs causing pulmonary edema

b. The blood would back up in the vena cava, causing systemic edema

c. Since failure of one side of the heart often leads to failure of the other side, eventually you could have failure on both sides

d. Both A and C are correct

e. Both B and C are correct

e. Both B and C are correct

The coronary blood vessels are part of the ________circuit of the circulatory system.

a. cardiac

b. pulmonary

c. systemic

d. systematic

e. cardiovascular

c. systemic

the purpose of having valves in the cardiovascular system is to

ensure that blood flows in only one direction

Which of the following statements about heart valves is CORRECT?

a. The bicuspid/mitral valve is between the right atrium and right ventricle

b. The tricuspid valve is between the left atrium and left ventricle

c. Semilunar valves regulate the flow of blood into the heart

d. AV valves are anchored by chordae tendinae to help prevent movement of blood into the atria during ventricular systole

d. AV valves are anchored by chordae tendinae to help prevent movement of blood into the atria during ventricular systole

Atrial contraction occurs during _____

a. P wave

b. QRS complex

c. T wave

d. PQ segment

e. ST segment

d. PQ segment

Ventricular contraction occurs during _____

a. P wave

b. QRS complex

c. T wave

d. PQ segment

e. ST segment

e. ST segment

The electrical signal from the SA node starts right before _____

a. P wave

b. QRS complex

c. T wave

d. PQ segment

e. ST segment

a. P wave

Ventricular diastole occurs after____

a. P wave

b. QRS complex

c. T wave

d. PQ segment

e. ST segment

c. T wave

Put these phases of the cardiac cycle in the correct order:

1. opening of the semilunar valves

2. isovolumetric contraction of ventricles

3. atrial systole

4. closure of the AV valves

5. isovolumetric relaxation of ventricles

6. passive filling of ventricles during ventricular diastole

7. ventricular ejection

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7

b. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5, 6, 7

c. 6, 3, 2, 4, 1, 7, 5

d. 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

e. 6, 7, 5, 3, 4, 1, 2

e. 6, 7, 5, 3, 4, 1, 2

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with coronary artery disease?

a. Stress/aggression, often leading to hypertension

b. Increased dietary fat and cholesterol

c. Obesity

d. Hypotension

e. Smoking

d. Hypotension

The chest pain associated with decreased blood delivery to the heart's tissue, when oxygen is not reaching cardiac muscle is called:

a. Myocardial infarction

b. Pericarditis

c. Angina pectoris

d. Cardiac tamponade

c. Angina pectoris

Artherosclerotic plaques can become focal points for blood clots. If part of the blood clot breaks off and blocks a coronary artery, part of the heart muscle may die and cause:

a. Ischemia

b. Myocardial Infarction

c. Pericarditis

d. Angina pectoris

b. Myocardial Infarction

The aortic and pulmonary valves close during the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle, contributing to the second heart sound (creating the "dupp" in "lubb-dupp")

true or false

true

The pacemaker potential is caused by a slow inflow of Na+ ions that depolarizes the heart cells.

true or false

true

Arteries are designed to withstand high pressures by having a thick tunica interna layer

true or false

false

The tunica media is the blood vessel layer that secretes chemicals that dilate or constrict the vessel, and is the site of material exchange.

true or false

false

Blood flow into a capillary bed is controlled by precapillary sphincters.

true or false

true

John's pulse pressure is 25mm Hg, and his diastolic pressure is 95mmHg. So his mean arterial pressure is a little over 103mmHg

true or false

true

Veins are called capacitance vessels because they hold most of the blood in the circulatory system

true or false

true

Sometimes blood vessels merge to create alternate pathways into or out of organs. These merging points are called "portal systems".

true or false

false

The right lymphatic collecting duct is formed by the convergence of the right jugular, subclavian, and bronchomediastinal trunks. Obstruction of this collecting duct will lead to edema in the right side of the thorax and abdomen as well as the right arm and leg.

true or false

false

Pyrogens produce prostaglandins in the hypothalamus that increase the set point for body temperature.

true or false

true

Neutrophils secrete toxic chemicals that kill bacteria through a process called "respiratory burst."

true or false

true

Eosinophils provide nonspecific resistance by secreting leukotrienes (attracts and activates neutrophils), histamine (a vasodilator) and heparin (an anticoagulant).

true or false

false

Mucous membranes prevent pathogens from entering the body by producing sticky mucous and lysozymes. These are examples of specific defense

true or false

false

The baroreceptors have sensed an increase in blood pressure. Which of the following will NOT occur?

a. Acetylcholine will be released from the vagus nerve to decrease heart rate

b. Blood vessels will vasoconstrict

c. Cardioinhibitory neurons in the cardiac center will be stimulated

d. Vasomotor center will be inhibited

b. Blood vessels will vasoconstrict

(not on test) medulla receptors will cause vasoconstriction to increase bp and will result in:

a. decrease in blood pH

b. increase in blood CO2

c. decrease in blood perfusion in medulla

d. increase in blood O2

e. decrease in blood perfusion in medulla

e. decrease in blood perfusion in medulla

Given these blood vessels:

1. inferior mesenteric vein

2. superior mesenteric vein

3. hepatic portal vein

4. hepatic vein

Choose the arrangement that lists the vessels in order going from the small intestine to the inferior vena cava.

a. 1,2,3

b. 1,4,3

c. 2,3,4

d. 2,4,3

c. 2,3,4

lymph nodes are _____ lymphatic organs

secondary

invading cancer cells can compromise the nodes functions _____

cleanse the lymph only

removing lymph nodes prevents ____

metastasis

pelvic lymph nodes ultimately drain into the ____ collecting duct

thoracic

edema is caused by increased ______ or decreased ________

filtration; absorption

removing lymph nodes and lymphatic capillaries would decrease the amount of fluid returning to the bloodstream, and the decreased volume would decrease ______

blood hydrostatic pressure

low venous return decreases end-diastolic volume (the volume of blood at the ___ of ventricular relaxation)

end

according to the frank-starling law of the heart, ____would decrease

heart rate

this decrease could partly be reversed by increased release of a ____ inotropic agent such as calcium that increase contractility of the heart

positive

This is the only organ that is actually part of the digestive tract. The rest are accessory organs.

a. salivary glands

b. pancreas

c. gallbladder

d. stomach

e. liver

d. stomach

This organ is unique because it receives blood from both an artery and a portal system.

a. pancreas

b. gallbladder

c. stomach

d. salivary glands

e. liver

e. liver.

This organ is unique because it is both an exocrine and endocrine gland (e.g. releases insulin).

a. liver

b. pancreas

c. stomach

d. salivary glands

e. gallbladder

b. pancreas

Losing this organ would impair our ability to bind food together, clean our teeth and stimulate taste buds.

a. pancreas

b. liver

c. gallbladder

d. stomach

e. salivary glands

e. salivary glands

The muscularis externa of this organ has an extra layer, which facilitates the mechanical breakdown of food.

a. pancreas

b. salivary glands

c. gallbladder

d. stomach

e. liver

d. stomach

Cholecystokinin acts on this storage organ to make it release bile into the small intestine.

a. salivary glands

b. gallbladder

c. stomach

d. pancreas

e. liver

b. gallbladder

The cells in this organ absorb nutrients, remove and degrade toxins, secrete proteins like albumin and make bile salts.

a. salivary glands

b. stomach

c. gallbladder

d. liver

e. pancreas

d. liver

Losing this organ would impair protein, carbohydrate and fat digestion, because it release digestive enzymes for all 3 of these nutrients.

a. stomach

b. liver

c. salivary glands

d. pancreas

e. gallbladder

d. pancreas