CH 5 Procedures and Airport Operations ASA Test Prep

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

A- Depart in any direction consistently with safety, after crossing the airport boundary

B- make all turns to the left

C- comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

C- comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is

A- 45* to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude

B- to enter 45* at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude

C- to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg

B- to enter 45* at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude

VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished

A- at higher airspeed

B- with a steeper descent

C- the same during daytime

C- the same during daytime

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

A- 009 and 027 true

B- 090 and 270 true

C- 090 and 270 magnetic

C- 090 and 270 magnetic

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

A- 008 and 026 true

B- 080 and 260 true

C- 080 and 260 magnetic

C- 080 and 260 magnetic

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?

A- indicates direction to take-off runway

B- indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway

C- indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

C- indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

The yellow demarcation bar marking indicates

A- a runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway

B- a hold line from a taxiway to a runway

C- the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side

A- a runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway

Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?

A- recreational pilots only

B- military pilots

C- student pilots

C- student pilots

Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

A- pilot in command

B- air traffic controller

C- second in command

A- pilot in command

When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

A- when it will compromise safety

B- only when the tower operator concurs

C- pilots can not decline clearance

A- when it will compromise safety

Where is the "Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?

A- special notices section of the chart supplement U.S

B- 14 CFR part 91, general operating and flight rules

C- Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

A- special notices section of the chart supplement U.S

What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short clearance?

A- 3 nautical miles

B- 3 statue miles

C- 1 statue miles

B- 3 statue miles

When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side wit the continuous lines, the pilot

A- may continue taxiing

B- should not cross the lines without ATC clearance

C- should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines

B- should not cross the lines without ATC clearance

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

A- denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway

B- denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway

C- denotes intersecting runways

C- denotes intersecting runways

What does the outbound destination sign identify?

A. Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway.

B. Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.

C. Identifies direction to take-off runways.

B. Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.

What is the purpose of the no entry sign?

A- identifies a paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering

B- identifies area that does not continue beyond intersection

C- identifies the exit boundary for the runway protected area

A- identifies a paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering

An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

A- there are obstructions on the airport

B- that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below VFR weather minimums

C- the air traffic control tower is not in operation

B- that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below VFR weather minimums

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

A- white directional lights

B- blue omnidirectional lights

C- alternate red and green lights

B- blue omnidirectional lights

To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it

A- one time within four seconds

B- three times within three seconds

C- fives times within five seconds

C- fives times within five seconds

A lighted heliport may be identified by a

A- green, yellow, and white rotating beacon

B- flashing yellow light

C- blue lighted square landing area

A- green, yellow, and white rotating beacon

A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits

A- white and green alternating flashes

B- two quick white flashes between green flashes

C- green, yellow, and white flashes

B- two quick white flashes between green flashes

How can a military airport be identified at night?

A. Alternate white and green light flashes.

B. Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.

C. White flashing lights with steady green at the same location.

B. Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glide-path of the VASI?

A- runway identification and course guidance

B- safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

C- Lateral course guidance on the runway

B- safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

A- pulsating white light

B- steady white light

C- pulsating red light

C- pulsating red light

While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall...

A- maintain a 3* glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI

B- maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

C- stay high until the runway can be reached in a power off landing

B- maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall

A- maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downward from the runway threshold

B- maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

C- remain on the glide slope and land between the two light bar

B- maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is

A- four white lights

B- three white lights and one red light

C- two white lights and two red lights

B- three white lights and one red light

When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

A- aileron down on the downwind side

B- aileron neutral

C- aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

C- aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?

A- aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing

B- aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

C- ailerons neutral

A- aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing

Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high wing airplane?

A- quartering tailwind

B- direct crosswind

C- quartering headwind

A- quartering tailwind

To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the

A- direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway

B- longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion

C- downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the Aircraft to drift

B- longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

A- NOTAMs

B- Chart Supplements U.S

C- Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data

B- Chart Supplements U.S

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during...

A- the entire flight time at those altitudes

B- that flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes

C- that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes

C- that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes

Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of US registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of...

A- 12,500 feet MSL

B- 14,000 feet MSL

C- 15,000 feet MSL

C- 15,000 feet MSL

Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in

A- tightness across the forehead

B- loss of muscular power

C- an increased sense of well being

B- loss of muscular power

Which statement best defines hypoxia?

A- a state of oxygen deficiency in the body

B- an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed

C- a condition of gas bubble formation around the joints of muscles

A- a state of oxygen deficiency in the body

When a stressful situation is encountered in flight, an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out can cause a condition known as

A- hyperventilation

B- aerosinustits

C- aerotitis

A- hyperventilation

Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

A- emotional tension, anxiety, or fear

B- the excessive consumption of alcohol

C- an extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen

A- emotional tension, anxiety, or fear

A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by

A- slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud

B- breathing spontaneously and deeply or gaining mental control of the situation

C- increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation

A- slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud

Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as

A- altitude increases

B- altitude decreases

C- air pressure increases

A- altitude increases

The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by

A- shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel

B- having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs

C- leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft

B- having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs

A lack of orientation with regard to the position altitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as

A- spatial disorientation

B- hyperventilation

C- hypoxia

A- spatial disorientation

Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if...

A- they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear

B- visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC)

C- eyes are moved often in the process of cross checking the flight instruments

B- visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC)

If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to

A- rely upon the aircraft instrument indications

B- concentrate in yaw, pitch and roll sensations

C- consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal breathing rate

A- rely upon the aircraft instrument indications

What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?

A- Scud running

B- Mind set

C- Peer pressure

A- Scud running

What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity?

A- it could happen to me

B- do it quickly to get it over with

C- not so fast, think first

C- not so fast, think first

Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes?

A- poor risk management and lack of stress management

B- anti authority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability

C- poor situational awareness, snap judgement, and lack of a decision making process

B- anti authority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability

In the aeronautical decision making process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?

A- making a rational judgement

B- recognizing hazardous thoughts

C- recognizing the invulnerability of the situation.

B- recognizing hazardous thoughts

Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision-making process, relies on which features to reduce the risk associated with each flight?

A- application of stress management and risk element procedures

B- situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement

C- The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take

B- situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement

What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of invulnerability?

A- it will not happen to me

B- it can not be that bad

C- It could happen to me

C- It could happen to me

What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of macho?

A- I can do it

B- Taking chances is foolish

C- Nothing will happen

B- Taking chances is foolish

What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of resignation?

A- what is the use

B- someone else is responsible

C- I am not helpless

C- I am not helpless

Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?

A- the FAA

B- the medical examiner

C- the pilot

C- the pilot

What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?

A- structural failure

B- mechanical malfunction

C- human error

C- human error

What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

A- continuing flight into instrument conditions

B- getting behind the aircraft

C- duck under syndrome

A- continuing flight into instrument conditions

What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?

A- checklist

B- situational awareness

C- flying outside the envelope

A- checklist

Most midair collision accidents occur during

A. hazy days.

B. clear days.

C. cloudy nights.

B. clear days.

Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should

A- check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications

B- visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

C- announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF

B- visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

A- haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity

B- the eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily

C- all traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance

C- all traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance

Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should

A- not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second

B- be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds

C- use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing

A- not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?

A- systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals

B- concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area

C- continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left

A- systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

A- the other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate

B- the nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space

C- there will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

C- there will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?

A- wear sunglasses after sunset until ready for flight

B- avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight

C- avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight

C- avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight

What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?

A- Look only at far away, dim lights

B- Scan slowly to permit off center viewing

C- Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds

B- Scan slowly to permit off center viewing

The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to

A- look to the side of the object and scan slowly

B- scan the visual field very rapidly

C- look to the side of the object and scan rapidly

A- look to the side of the object and scan slowly

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use

A- regularly spaced concentration on the three, nine, and twelve o'clock positions

B- a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30* sector

C- peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing

C- peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

A- End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight

B- 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise

C- Sunset to sunrise

C- Sunset to sunrise

Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating...

A- Class B airspace

B- 10 miles of any airport

C- Within 15 miles of a towered airport

B- 10 miles of any airport

The AIM specifically encourages pilots to turn in their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating

A- in class b airspace

B- in conditions of reduced visibility

C- within 15 miles of a towered airport

B- in conditions of reduced visibility

During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A- the other aircraft is crossing to the left

B- The other aircraft is crossing to the right

C- the other aircraft is approaching head on

A- the other aircraft is crossing to the left

During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A- the other aircraft is flying away from you

B- the other aircraft is crossing to the left

C- the other aircraft is crossing to the right

A- the other aircraft is flying away from you

During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A- The other aircraft is crossing to the left

B- the other aircraft is flying away from you

C- the other aircraft is approaching head on

C- the other aircraft is approaching head on